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Dec 22, 2018 at 19:56 answer added Voulkos timeline score: 2
Nov 24, 2013 at 6:44 answer added Art Brown timeline score: 7
Nov 23, 2013 at 23:04 answer added Qmechanic timeline score: 6
Nov 18, 2013 at 7:59 answer added David Z timeline score: 7
Nov 17, 2013 at 20:25 history edited Qmechanic CC BY-SA 3.0
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Nov 17, 2013 at 20:17 answer added user26143 timeline score: 21
Nov 17, 2013 at 19:21 answer added joshphysics timeline score: 26
Nov 17, 2013 at 10:03 comment added Qmechanic One cannot derive $\hat{x}=ih \frac{\partial}{\partial p}$ just from the formula $\hat{p}=-ih \frac{\partial}{\partial x}$ alone. For instance $\hat{x}=\hat{c}+ih \frac{\partial}{\partial p}$ is also consistent, where $\hat{c}$ is a Casimir operator (e.g. proportional to the identity operator ${\bf 1}$). One needs to make further (conventional) assumptions in order to derive eq. (2). See e.g. this, this, and possibly this Phys.SE post.
Nov 17, 2013 at 5:22 review Close votes
Nov 18, 2013 at 4:23
Nov 17, 2013 at 3:52 review First posts
Nov 17, 2013 at 5:03
Nov 17, 2013 at 3:33 history asked user34032 CC BY-SA 3.0