Suppose we try to imagine a 2D analogy of spacetime (1 dimension for space + 1 dimension for time). Lets say there is a point mass $(m)$ at x = 5. So the world line would be the line x = 5 in x-t spacetime.
Now lets assume there is a point mass ($M >> m$) at the origin. So my question is, how would the space time bend exactly (what's the exact mathematical description of bending), that would make it seem like the object is being accelerated at $\frac{-GM}{r^2}$ when its at $x=r$? And what would be the universal "postulate" here, which direction do objects travel in the space time here and at what speed. Some reasoning would also be great as to why is this the case.

Suppose we try to imagine a 1+1D analogy of spacetime (1 dimension for space + 1 dimension for time). Lets say there is a point mass $m$ at $x = 5$. So the world line would be the line $x = 5$ in $x$-$t$ spacetime.
Now let's assume there is a point mass ($M >> m$) at the origin. So my question is, how would the spacetime bend exactly (what's the exact mathematical description of bending), that would make it seem like the object is being accelerated at $\frac{-GM}{r^2}$ when its at $x=r$? And what would be the universal "postulate" here, which direction do objects travel in the space time here and at what speed. Some reasoning would also be great as to why is this the case.