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Nov 28 at 21:04 comment added Krum Kutsarov Even though we can show that measuring both the quantities with arbitraty precision is indeed impossible, nowhere in the derivation of the uncertainty inequality have I used the concept of "measurement". How could you then say that it is a property of the measurement?
Nov 28 at 20:40 history answered Quantumwhisp CC BY-SA 4.0