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S Nov 22 at 0:01 history bounty ended WillG
S Nov 22 at 0:01 history notice removed WillG
Nov 22 at 0:01 vote accept WillG
Nov 14 at 7:46 answer added flippiefanus timeline score: 2
S Nov 14 at 5:42 history bounty started WillG
S Nov 14 at 5:42 history notice added WillG Draw attention
Nov 12 at 9:14 comment added Tobias Fünke Regarding your last comment: Yes, I agree, it is what I think but not explicitly checked (that was anyway not meant as a question, but more of a suggestion). But as it seems, I misunderstood your question. Regarding your actual question: It would be interesting to see what exactly Talagrand means here, i.e. what physicists write in certain QFT texts... but I don't know, it is not my field...
Nov 12 at 7:30 comment added WillG @TobiasFünke Regarding your first question, $X_m$ has zero measure with respect to Lebesgue measure on $\mathbb R^{1,3}$, of which $X_m$ is a submanifold. Of course, $X_m$ has nonzero measure with respect to $d\lambda_m$.
Nov 12 at 6:59 comment added WillG In other words, I want to make Talagrand's (mathematical) idea precise and answer his (mathematical) question—not his question about physicists' mental picture.
Nov 12 at 6:56 comment added WillG @TobiasFünke No, I want the answer to the question Talagrand is asking (implicitly) in the sentence "my problem here is...". In other words, what is the norm on "that space," which makes the representation unitary? Note that "that space" is not $L^2(X_m, d\lambda_m)$, but rather some space $Y$ of functions satisfying the KG equation. To really answer Talagrand's question, you have to go further make precise what $Y$ even is. Moreover, I think $Y$ should be a Hilbert space and hence we really need an inner product on it, not just a norm.
Nov 12 at 6:45 comment added Tobias Fünke Then I may misunderstand the question. Do you want to understand what Talagrand says about physicists?
Nov 12 at 6:43 comment added WillG @TobiasFünke I don't doubt that $L^2(X_m, d\lambda_m)$ is well defined. My doubt is about the "space of functions on $\mathbb R^{1,3}$ whose Fourier transform is supported by $X_m$."
Nov 12 at 6:40 comment added Tobias Fünke Regarding your last paragraph: I think $L^2(X_m,\mathrm d\lambda)$ is well-defined. Is $X_m$ a set of measure zero with respect to the given measure?
Nov 12 at 5:32 history edited Qmechanic CC BY-SA 4.0
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Nov 12 at 5:04 history edited WillG CC BY-SA 4.0
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Nov 12 at 4:20 history asked WillG CC BY-SA 4.0