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Oct 28 at 16:13 comment added Connor Behan It's easy to notice which transformation of $x^2$ will give the right answer. The linked question is about why making $x_\mu$ pick up $\lambda$ and $x^\mu$ pick up $1/\lambda$ is wrong.
Oct 28 at 10:03 comment added Geigercounter @ConnorBehan I understand with what's written in the linked question, but I don't understand how $x_\mu$ should transform then. Could you maybe give some details?
Oct 28 at 10:01 history edited Geigercounter CC BY-SA 4.0
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Oct 27 at 23:34 history closed Connor Behan
Matt Hanson
Miyase
Duplicate of Why do scalars scale?
Oct 27 at 21:36 review Close votes
Oct 27 at 23:34
Oct 27 at 21:30 comment added Connor Behan It is not more subtle than the difference between an active and a passive transformation... $f$ should not be invariant.
Oct 27 at 21:26 comment added Geigercounter I think this question is a bit more subtle, because I'm not really concerned with the transformation of the fields, but more so with the correlation function and the transformation of the function $f(x)$ in terms of $x^\mu$.
Oct 27 at 21:13 comment added Connor Behan This question is similar to: Why do scalars scale?. If you believe it’s different, please edit the question, make it clear how it’s different and/or how the answers on that question are not helpful for your problem.
Oct 27 at 17:50 history asked Geigercounter CC BY-SA 4.0