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Oct 11 at 7:06 comment added Qmechanic I updated the answer.
Oct 11 at 7:05 history edited Qmechanic CC BY-SA 4.0
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Oct 10 at 18:40 comment added User198 I wrongly used the word "implication" (English is not my first language). I meant to ask, regarding your 3. point: Why does Energy conservation imply Lagrange equation for 1D?
Oct 9 at 17:53 comment added User198 Ah sorry. Than I didn't understand you properly.
Oct 9 at 17:50 comment added Qmechanic 2. No. 4. This is a misquote.
Oct 9 at 17:47 history edited Qmechanic CC BY-SA 4.0
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Oct 9 at 17:40 comment added User198 4. Why does Energy conservation work as an implication of the Lagrange equation for $n=1$ but not for $n\geq 2$? 5. If it makes sense to make that question even? I don't want to question why to much to not fall into a loophole.
Oct 9 at 17:40 comment added User198 "Energy conservation implies Lagrange equation (via time differentiation)."(for 1 DOF). This sounds really interesting. 1. Does this statement have a specific name? 2. Is it an if and only if statement? 3. I was looking at some of the other answers to this question and one of them concludes: "Thus, $\frac{dH}{dt}=0$ is true (under a few restrictions) if and only if $\frac{d q}{d t}=\frac{\partial H}{\partial p}$ and $\frac{d p}{d t}=-\frac{\partial H}{\partial q}$ are also true." But you seem to say that the Conservation of energy is an implication of the Lagrange equation.
Oct 9 at 17:14 history edited Qmechanic CC BY-SA 4.0
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Oct 9 at 16:53 history answered Qmechanic CC BY-SA 4.0