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Oct 7 at 8:33 history edited Qmechanic
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Oct 7 at 8:32 comment added Qmechanic Hi FriendlyLagrangian. If you haven't already done so, please take a minute to read the definition of when to use the homework-and-exercises tag, and the Phys.SE policy for homework-like problems.
Oct 7 at 8:21 history edited FriendlyLagrangian CC BY-SA 4.0
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Oct 7 at 8:20 vote accept FriendlyLagrangian
Oct 7 at 8:13 answer added FriendlyLagrangian timeline score: 0
Oct 2 at 16:02 history reopened FriendlyLagrangian
gandalf61
Thomas Fritsch
Oct 2 at 13:29 comment added Bob D @FriendlyLagrangian What do you mean I keep closing this question? This is the first time I've seen it and voted to close. Anyway, I see the community is reviewing to reopen, so wait for their decision (I am not part of the review, so don't worry about me)
Oct 2 at 12:50 review Reopen votes
Oct 2 at 16:02
Oct 2 at 12:48 comment added FriendlyLagrangian @BobD Why do you keep closing this question?! It's not on the site and it is extremely relevant to many fields like superconducting circuits and quantum computing. The moderation of this site is becoming hyper restrictive and will impact it negatively. This is not the $n$-th question about a parabolic trajectory from a lazy high schooler, this is directly related to modern papers. Surely with enough imagination, every question is homework like or check my work type of question no??
Oct 2 at 12:45 comment added Farcher With knowledge of the sign convention which you are using it is. not possible to answer your question with certainty.
Oct 2 at 12:27 history closed Bob D
Jon Custer
Vincent Thacker
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Oct 2 at 11:42 review Close votes
Oct 2 at 12:27
Oct 2 at 11:26 history edited Bob D
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Oct 2 at 11:07 comment added FriendlyLagrangian @hyportnex by off I mean that, if my last equation above was right too, then it would imply that $$L_1( \frac{\ddot{Q_1}}{C_1} - L_2 \dddot{I}_4 ) = 2(\ddot{Q_1} - \ddot{Q_2}),$$ which I don't see how. Also, there has to be an easier way of doing this haha
S Oct 2 at 11:00 history suggested Bml CC BY-SA 4.0
Fixed typos in title and body.
Oct 2 at 10:59 comment added FriendlyLagrangian @hyportnex I see, so indeed $Q_g \neq Q_1 - Q_2$ (which dispels the worry of their sign). Then, if up to that point my reasoning is correct, my only way of removing $Q_g$ is by finding an equation for it and substituting. That would be, again by Kirchoff: $$L_2 \dot{I}_4 + \frac{Q_g}{C_g} - \frac{Q_1}{C_1} = 0.$$ So $$Q_g = C_g(\frac{Q_1}{C_1} -L_2 \dot{I}_4).$$ We substitute this into $$\frac{Q_{1}}{C_1} + L_1 (\ddot{Q}_g + \ddot{Q}_1) = 0$$ and obtain $$\frac{Q_1}{C_1} + L_1(C_g(\frac{\ddot{Q}_1}{C_1} -L_2 \dddot{I}_4) + \ddot{Q}_1)$$ and similarly for $Q_2$. But this seems off too?
Oct 2 at 10:28 comment added Vincent Thacker Previous question by OP: physics.stackexchange.com/q/829671/174766
Oct 2 at 10:21 review Suggested edits
S Oct 2 at 11:00
Oct 2 at 10:18 comment added hyportnex hint: Charge conservation is not that the sum of charges on the three capacitors is constant but rather that the total charge in the whole circuit is a constant and is expressed by the two node conditions: $I_1=I_2+I_3$ and $I_2=I_4+I_5$. This is because the charges move in and out of the inductors and capacitors. How would you write down charge conservation for a pair a simple parallel LC resonator?
Oct 2 at 10:15 history edited Qmechanic CC BY-SA 4.0
edited tags; edited title
Oct 2 at 10:11 history asked FriendlyLagrangian CC BY-SA 4.0