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Sep 22 at 19:30 history edited Amit CC BY-SA 4.0
this answer went through a complete rewrite after I found a serious mistake. I apologize for any confusion!
Sep 22 at 19:20 comment added Amit @Acccumulation Correct, thank you! I am rewriting this answer from scratch right now. I'll be happy if you'll review it in just a few minutes.
Sep 22 at 19:17 comment added Acccumulation There are two different objects experiencing two different forces, and they each have their own velocities, and those velocities have their own derivatives. So we have $ m_1\dot{v_1} = -m_2\dot{v_2}$.
Sep 22 at 17:39 history edited Amit CC BY-SA 4.0
added 460 characters in body
Sep 22 at 16:10 vote accept CommunityBot
Sep 22 at 15:04 vote accept CommunityBot
Sep 22 at 16:10
Sep 22 at 13:19 history edited Amit CC BY-SA 4.0
added 137 characters in body
Sep 22 at 12:55 history answered Amit CC BY-SA 4.0