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The efficiency equals 1 in this case. Why is the above scenario not feasible?

It would violate the Kelvin-Planck statement of the second law of thermodynamics, which essentially says no heat engine can produce net work operating in a cycle while exchanging heat with a single heat reservoir.

If I understand your proposal correctly, you would take the output of the turbine (saturated vapor), bypass the condenser (heat rejection) and send it directly to the pump to compress it into saturated liquid at the boiler pressure and temperature (which is the same as the input pressure and temperature to the turbine). In effect, the pump would perform the reverse work of the turbine for a net cycle work of zero.

Hope this helps.

The efficiency equals 1 in this case. Why is the above scenario not feasible?

It would violate the Kelvin-Planck statement of the second law of thermodynamics, which essentially says no heat engine can produce net work operating in a cycle while exchanging heat with a single heat reservoir.

If I understand your proposal correctly, you would take the output of the turbine (saturated vapor), bypass the condenser (heat rejection) and send it directly to the pump to compress it into saturated vapor at the boiler pressure and temperature (which is the same as the input pressure and temperature to the turbine). In effect, the pump would perform the reverse work of the turbine for a net cycle work of zero.

Hope this helps.

The efficiency equals 1 in this case. Why is the above scenario not feasible?

It would violate the Kelvin-Planck statement of the second law of thermodynamics, which essentially says no heat engine can produce net work operating in a cycle while exchanging heat with a single heat reservoir.

If I understand your proposal correctly, you would take the output of the turbine (saturated vapor), bypass the condenser (heat rejection) and send it directly to the pump to compress it into saturated liquid at the boiler pressure (which is the same as the input pressure to the turbine). In effect, the pump would perform the reverse work of the turbine for a net cycle work of zero.

Hope this helps.

The efficiency equals 1 in this case. Why is the above scenario not feasible?

It would violate the Kelvin-Planck statement of the second law of thermodynamics, which essentially says no heat engine can produce net work operating in a cycle while exchanging heat with a single heat reservoir.

If I understand your proposal correctly, you would take the output of the turbine (saturated vapor), bypass the condenser (heat rejection) and send it directly to the pump to compress it into saturated liquid at the boiler pressure and temperature (which is the same as the input pressure and temperature to the turbine). In effect, the pump would perform the reverse work of the turbine for a net cycle work of zero.

Hope this helps.

The efficiency equals 1 in this case. Why is the above scenario not feasible?

It would violate the Kelvin-Planck statement of the second law of thermodynamics, which essentially says no heat engine can produce net work operating in a cycle while exchanging heat with a single heat reservoir.

Hope this helps.

The efficiency equals 1 in this case. Why is the above scenario not feasible?

It would violate the Kelvin-Planck statement of the second law of thermodynamics, which essentially says no heat engine can produce net work operating in a cycle while exchanging heat with a single heat reservoir.

If I understand your proposal correctly, you would take the output of the turbine (saturated vapor), bypass the condenser (heat rejection) and send it directly to the pump to compress it into saturated liquid at the boiler pressure (which is the same as the input pressure to the turbine). In effect, the pump would perform the reverse work of the turbine for a net cycle work of zero.

Hope this helps.