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Jul 16 at 18:21 comment added Bob D Sorry, but I can't make sense of your first comment. You seem to think of latent heat as something that is "contained" in the water. You've got to get rid of the idea of something containing heat. As long as the water was 0C before mixing with 0C ice, there can't be any energy transfer from the water to the ice in the form of heat.
Jul 16 at 18:04 comment added Kakiaririki And if it could really happen the water should have been in a partial frozen state but not completely an ice and ice should have been partially liquified (because after we have halved the latent heat and distributed it among both ice and water; the heat absorbed won't be sufficient to change state completely). However the temperature would still remain the same (0°C)
Jul 16 at 18:00 comment added Kakiaririki Actually I tend to say that when the water had formed at some point (which is outside the system of closed container) it absorbed latent heat provided to it from external source. When this water is kept with ice in a closed container ( let the mass of ice and water be same and the temperature for both be 0°C) some part of that latent heat absorbed by water should have transferred from water to ice such that the energy content for both ice and water equal.
Jul 16 at 17:28 history answered Bob D CC BY-SA 4.0