Timeline for Why doesn't ice in a glacier feel as cold when I touch it as the ice I get from my freezer?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
22 events
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Jul 9 at 9:49 | comment | added | Ritzthephysibeast | Also, I don't agree with @Roger V because humans being homeothermal, never will the temperature of ice equal the temperature of glacier in Iceland. | |
Jul 8 at 16:23 | comment | added | Ritzthephysibeast | @Enlico but i supposed you got the answer to why it didn't feel cold? | |
Jul 8 at 16:21 | comment | added | Ritzthephysibeast | Well, see. The thing lies in that the ice is a bad conductor. I understand your confusion but if I Considered ice to be a good conductor, (which seems I did by the answer) equilibrium would never be reached due to continuous difference of temperature. Just think how many molecules could you touch, they are not enough to give the wet sensation, because the surrounding molecules absorb a little heat (If not the ocean and glacier). | |
Jul 8 at 14:35 | comment | added | Enlico | but not enough to melt it because, it again dissipates the heat energy absorbed into the whole glacier which again dissipates it to the ocean. This is absolutely not true. As much as conduction is governed by a PDE of 2nd order in space, progation does not happen at infinite speed. And even if it did, that would still not mean that the heat flux can pull heat out of my hand without the ice increasing its temperature, as the conductivity is not infinite. By the time the ocean knows that my hand is on the glacier, the ice in contact with my hand must have long melted. | |
Jul 8 at 10:23 | comment | added | Ritzthephysibeast | @Enlico please see the edit, it is now without assumptions and I expect it to be a satisfactory explanation. Also, I don't know the temperature of the glacier nor of your hand. I even don't know their masses. So, there is not much calculation associated. But still, feel free to state your doubts in case anything is improper. | |
Jul 8 at 10:21 | history | edited | Ritzthephysibeast | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
Catered to needs of asker
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S Jul 7 at 21:20 | history | edited | Matt Hanson | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
MathJax, grammar
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S Jul 7 at 21:20 | history | suggested | CompassBearer | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
MathJax, grammar
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Jul 7 at 21:12 | review | Suggested edits | |||
S Jul 7 at 21:20 | |||||
Jul 7 at 20:12 | comment | added | Enlico | To be honest I don't find it particularly accurate. You're throwing numbers around, but not really giving an explanation with a description of the assumption, and the calculations supporting the claim. | |
S Jul 7 at 19:31 | history | suggested | Enlico | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
you could have spent more time fixing the typos
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Jul 7 at 19:05 | review | Suggested edits | |||
S Jul 7 at 19:31 | |||||
Jul 7 at 17:23 | comment | added | Ritzthephysibeast | @Enlico Please inform me whether my answer is complete or not. I would be thanked if you upvote me! | |
Jul 7 at 12:44 | comment | added | Ritzthephysibeast | @Enlico I see. Actually in physics we omit that often as 1 unit in Kelvin scale equals 1unit in Celsius scale (The two most commonly used units). But that is still a mistake to omit that. So, I shall correct it. Thanks for the advice! | |
S Jul 7 at 12:41 | review | First answers | |||
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S Jul 7 at 12:41 | history | edited | Ritzthephysibeast | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
added 6 characters in body
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Jul 7 at 11:41 | comment | added | Enlico | I was not commenting on dimensionlessness. I was just saying you've got something to fix in the answer, i.e. the units. | |
Jul 7 at 11:13 | comment | added | Ritzthephysibeast | Yes, but therefore it is not dimension less. Hope that helps! | |
Jul 7 at 5:36 | comment | added | Enlico | Specific heat is measured in J/kg/K, I believe, no? | |
Jul 7 at 3:08 | review | Late answers | |||
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S Jul 7 at 2:45 | review | First answers | |||
Jul 7 at 3:19 | |||||
S Jul 7 at 2:45 | history | answered | Ritzthephysibeast | CC BY-SA 4.0 |