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Jul 9 at 9:49 comment added Ritzthephysibeast Also, I don't agree with @Roger V because humans being homeothermal, never will the temperature of ice equal the temperature of glacier in Iceland.
Jul 8 at 16:23 comment added Ritzthephysibeast @Enlico but i supposed you got the answer to why it didn't feel cold?
Jul 8 at 16:21 comment added Ritzthephysibeast Well, see. The thing lies in that the ice is a bad conductor. I understand your confusion but if I Considered ice to be a good conductor, (which seems I did by the answer) equilibrium would never be reached due to continuous difference of temperature. Just think how many molecules could you touch, they are not enough to give the wet sensation, because the surrounding molecules absorb a little heat (If not the ocean and glacier).
Jul 8 at 14:35 comment added Enlico but not enough to melt it because, it again dissipates the heat energy absorbed into the whole glacier which again dissipates it to the ocean. This is absolutely not true. As much as conduction is governed by a PDE of 2nd order in space, progation does not happen at infinite speed. And even if it did, that would still not mean that the heat flux can pull heat out of my hand without the ice increasing its temperature, as the conductivity is not infinite. By the time the ocean knows that my hand is on the glacier, the ice in contact with my hand must have long melted.
Jul 8 at 10:23 comment added Ritzthephysibeast @Enlico please see the edit, it is now without assumptions and I expect it to be a satisfactory explanation. Also, I don't know the temperature of the glacier nor of your hand. I even don't know their masses. So, there is not much calculation associated. But still, feel free to state your doubts in case anything is improper.
Jul 8 at 10:21 history edited Ritzthephysibeast CC BY-SA 4.0
Catered to needs of asker
S Jul 7 at 21:20 history edited Matt Hanson CC BY-SA 4.0
MathJax, grammar
S Jul 7 at 21:20 history suggested CompassBearer CC BY-SA 4.0
MathJax, grammar
Jul 7 at 21:12 review Suggested edits
S Jul 7 at 21:20
Jul 7 at 20:12 comment added Enlico To be honest I don't find it particularly accurate. You're throwing numbers around, but not really giving an explanation with a description of the assumption, and the calculations supporting the claim.
S Jul 7 at 19:31 history suggested Enlico CC BY-SA 4.0
you could have spent more time fixing the typos
Jul 7 at 19:05 review Suggested edits
S Jul 7 at 19:31
Jul 7 at 17:23 comment added Ritzthephysibeast @Enlico Please inform me whether my answer is complete or not. I would be thanked if you upvote me!
Jul 7 at 12:44 comment added Ritzthephysibeast @Enlico I see. Actually in physics we omit that often as 1 unit in Kelvin scale equals 1unit in Celsius scale (The two most commonly used units). But that is still a mistake to omit that. So, I shall correct it. Thanks for the advice!
S Jul 7 at 12:41 review First answers
Jul 7 at 14:58
S Jul 7 at 12:41 history edited Ritzthephysibeast CC BY-SA 4.0
added 6 characters in body
Jul 7 at 11:41 comment added Enlico I was not commenting on dimensionlessness. I was just saying you've got something to fix in the answer, i.e. the units.
Jul 7 at 11:13 comment added Ritzthephysibeast Yes, but therefore it is not dimension less. Hope that helps!
Jul 7 at 5:36 comment added Enlico Specific heat is measured in J/kg/K, I believe, no?
Jul 7 at 3:08 review Late answers
Jul 7 at 3:19
S Jul 7 at 2:45 review First answers
Jul 7 at 3:19
S Jul 7 at 2:45 history answered Ritzthephysibeast CC BY-SA 4.0