I am working my way through the 1934 paper by Weisskopf on the self-energy of the electron and is much helped by the English translation found here. Below is a screenshot of two pages. I can very well follow the derivationdo have some difficulties with section 2 of this paper. Weisskopf starts from a Hamiltonian (in updated notation and SI units) $$ H=\beta mc^{2}+c\left(\boldsymbol{\alpha}\cdot\boldsymbol{p}\right)+ec\left(\boldsymbol{\alpha}\cdot\boldsymbol{A}\right)+\frac{1}{2\varepsilon_{0}}\int\left(E^{2}+c^{2}B^{2}\right)d^{3}\boldsymbol{r} $$ (no scalar potential). The self-energy is then given by the electrostatic partexpectation value of $$ E=-\int\boldsymbol{j}\cdot\boldsymbol{A}d^{3}\boldsymbol{r}+\frac{1}{2}\varepsilon_{0}\int\left(E^{2}+c^{2}B^{2}\right)d^{3}\boldsymbol{r}, $$ where $\boldsymbol{j}=-ec\boldsymbol{\alpha}$ is the selfcurrent-energydensity and $\boldsymbol{A}$, given$\boldsymbol{E}$ and $\boldsymbol{B}$ describe the field which is generated by eqthe current density $\boldsymbol{j}$ and the charge density $\rho$. Weisskopf next divides the electromagnetic field into irrotational ($\parallel$) and solenoidal (1$\perp$) parts $$ \begin{array}{lcl} \boldsymbol{A} & = & \boldsymbol{A}_{\parallel}+\boldsymbol{A}_{\perp}\\ \boldsymbol{E} & = & \left(-\nabla\phi-\partial_{t}\boldsymbol{A}_{\parallel}\right)-\partial_{t}\boldsymbol{A}_{\perp}\\ \boldsymbol{B} & = & \boldsymbol{B}_{\perp}, \end{array} $$ allowing a separation of the energy into electrostatic and electrodynamic parts (the spatial integral over cross-terms give zero).
The electrostatic part is given by $$ E^{S}=\int\left(-\boldsymbol{j}\cdot\boldsymbol{A}_{\parallel}+\frac{1}{2}\varepsilon_{0}\boldsymbol{E}_{\parallel}^{2}\right)d^{3}\boldsymbol{r} $$ that Weisskopf reworks into $$ E^{S}=\frac{1}{2}\int\phi^{\prime}(\boldsymbol{r})\rho(\boldsymbol{r}) d^{3}\boldsymbol{r},\quad \phi^{\prime}\left(\boldsymbol{r}\right)=\frac{1}{4\pi\varepsilon_{0}}\int\frac{\rho\left(\boldsymbol{r}^{\prime}\right)}{\left|\boldsymbol{r}-\boldsymbol{r}^{\prime}\right|}d^{3}\boldsymbol{r}^{\prime}. $$ This part I can follow.
However, I am struggling to understand the derivation ofhave problems with the electrodynamical part, given in eq (2), where Weisskopf uses perturbation theory and notions of adiabatic change. Can anybody provide hintsThe starting expression is $$ E^D=-\int\boldsymbol{j}_{\perp}\cdot\boldsymbol{A}_{\perp}d^{3}\boldsymbol{r}+\frac{1}{2}\varepsilon_{0}\int\left(E_{\perp}^{2}+c^{2}B_{\perp}^{2}\right)d^{3}\boldsymbol{r},\quad (*) $$ Weisskopf writes that this term can be "reduced to understanding?the time average" $$ E^D=-\frac{1}{2}\int\boldsymbol{j}_{\perp}\cdot\boldsymbol{A}_{\perp}d^{3}\boldsymbol{r} $$ using the following argument :
According to a well-known theorem from analytical mechanics, the change in energy through the adiabatic change of a parameter $a$ is given by $$ \Delta E=\overline{\frac{\delta H(p,q,a)}{\delta a}}\Delta a \quad (1) $$ where the bar denotes time average or, in quantum theory, the diagonal element. We will regard $\boldsymbol{j}_{\perp}$ as a parameter independent of the remaining variables, since only $\boldsymbol{j}_{\parallel}$ is determined by the continuity equation. If we set $\boldsymbol{j}_{\perp}=\lambda \boldsymbol{j}_{\perp}^0$ and if we allow the current $\boldsymbol{j}_{\perp}$ to increase from zero to its actual value $\boldsymbol{j}_{\perp}^0$ through a change in $\lambda$ and if we use as a basis the expansion $$ H^{\prime}=-\int\boldsymbol{j}_{\perp}\cdot\boldsymbol{A}_{\perp}d^{3}\boldsymbol{r} = -\lambda H^{\prime}_1 + \lambda^2 H^{\prime}_2+\ldots \quad (2) $$ where $H_0^{\prime}$ is proportional to the charge $e$, and $H_1^{\prime}$ is proportional to $e^2$, we obtain the expression: $$ E^D = \int_0^1 \overline{\frac{\partial H}{\partial \boldsymbol{j}_{\perp}^0}}\boldsymbol{j}_{\perp}^0 d\lambda = \overline{H}^{\prime}_1 + \frac{1}{2} \overline{H}^{\prime}_2+\ldots $$ The first term is proportional to the charge $e$ and must vanish because of the symmetry of the self-energy with respect to the sign of $e$; if we limit ourselves to terms that are quadratic in $e$, we thus obtain $E^D=\frac{1}{2} \overline{H}^{\prime}_2$.
- Where can I find more information about the "well-known theorem from analytical mechanics" (1), and how does it translate into modern quantum mechanics ? I know that early quantum theory heavily used the notion of action-angle variables and adiabatic invariants.
- Why does the second part of the starting expression $(*)$ for $E^D$ seems to disappear and how is the expansion (2) to be understood ?
- I am also a bit intrigued by the remark that $\overline{H}^{\prime}_1$ vanishes due to charge conjugation symmetry. Any comments on that ?