Timeline for Why Does Planck's Relation $E=hf$ Imply a Linear Relationship Only for Sinusoidal Frequency Bases?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
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Mar 10 at 18:05 | history | edited | Thomas | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
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Mar 10 at 17:11 | history | edited | Thomas | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
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Mar 10 at 16:03 | comment | added | Thomas | @CuriousMind There is no real quantum reason as such. Even the Schrödinger equation mentioned in one of the other answers is actually constructed by combining two classical concepts, 1) classical mechanics and 2) the wave equation from classical electrodynamics. It is just so that the solutions of the wave equation (and thus the Schrödinger equation) are sinusoidal functions (see chem.libretexts.org/Courses/Pacific_Union_College/… ) and this appears to match observations | |
Mar 10 at 15:00 | comment | added | CuriousMind | thanks but that is a semi classical picture, I would like to see the real quantum reason for it. | |
Mar 10 at 10:32 | comment | added | Thomas | @CuriousMind Please see my edited answer | |
Mar 10 at 10:32 | history | edited | Thomas | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
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Mar 10 at 10:26 | history | edited | Thomas | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
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Mar 9 at 22:31 | comment | added | CuriousMind | Yes but, why is it sinusoidal? It is a bit strange right? What in the atom makes an energy transition (from one orbital to another) a sinusoidal oscilation? | |
Mar 9 at 19:19 | history | answered | Thomas | CC BY-SA 4.0 |