Timeline for Role of the friction force in rolling without slipping
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
9 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Feb 22 at 5:35 | answer | added | KDP | timeline score: 1 | |
| Feb 21 at 23:07 | answer | added | Ben H | timeline score: 0 | |
| Feb 21 at 22:37 | comment | added | Ben H | The dynamics in both Newton's Second Law ($\sum F_x = m a_x$) and "Newton's Second Law for rotation" ($\sum \tau_z = I \alpha_z$) concern the acceleration (or rotational acceleration, $\alpha_z$) of the object. Therefore you cannot just say "it moves to the right" therefore "the rolling wheel is accelerating to the right". These are two completely independent statements, and only the latter is due to the forces acting. The wheel spins at a constant angular velocity, $\omega_z$, without any torques. And the wheel can move across the ground with constant velocity, $v_x$, without any net force. | |
| Feb 21 at 18:49 | comment | added | PinkAura | Frictional force would only act if it is needed. For eg if there is no external force accelerating the body and the body is pure rolling, there won't be any friction acting on it. The body would be having constant angular velocity and linear velocity. | |
| Feb 21 at 4:57 | comment | added | BowlOfRed | physics.stackexchange.com/questions/149409/… | |
| Feb 21 at 4:16 | history | edited | Qmechanic♦ |
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| Feb 20 at 23:01 | answer | added | Obliv | timeline score: 0 | |
| S Feb 20 at 21:38 | review | First questions | |||
| Feb 20 at 21:45 | |||||
| S Feb 20 at 21:38 | history | asked | Jaś Rzeźniczak | CC BY-SA 4.0 |