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Feb 10 at 14:14 comment added Andrew Steane Yes one should include some comments on waveguides when answering this kind of question. One might add that when you have two plane waves propagating in directions ${\bf k}_1$ and ${\bf k}_2$, there is some sort of propagation in the direction $({\bf k}_1 + {\bf k}_2)/2$, and this direction is not perpendicular to the fields. The waveguide case can be viewed as an example of this.
S Feb 8 at 17:28 review First answers
Feb 8 at 17:34
S Feb 8 at 17:28 history edited hyportnex CC BY-SA 4.0
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Feb 8 at 17:25 comment added hyportnex This is incorrect as stated. The TE and TM fields of homogeneous waveguides completely filled with lossless dielectric have $H_z$ and $E_z$ longitudinal components, resp., and these non-zero components are parallel with the axis along which the wave propagates. These are actually dispersive waves despite the medium being ideal completely non-dispersive. The reason for dispersion is the restriction of the wave by the conductive (metallic) enclosure (boundary condition).
S Feb 8 at 16:40 review First answers
Feb 8 at 16:51
S Feb 8 at 16:40 history answered JL14 CC BY-SA 4.0