That was an interesting question, but I am not sure about the validity of the answer given there. In particular, in the fourth line of his/her response @udrv replaces $p_1$ with $-i \partial/\partial x$, but once you are allowed to do that, the commutation relation follows by itselve as an identity, as has been shown countless times in this forum.
EDIT: The remark about @udrv's original answer is inaccurate. As @ShKol has pointed out in a comment, $p_1$ was replaced with $-i \partial/\partial x$ not in "symbolic" context, but as a standard differentiaion-under-integration trick.