Skip to main content
11 events
when toggle format what by license comment
May 6, 2023 at 7:43 comment added NotMe Yes, $\vec u = 0$ everywhere satisfies the three conditions. However, the emphasise is put onto goes, which usually implies that it is non-zero somewhere.
May 6, 2023 at 7:07 history edited Qmechanic CC BY-SA 4.0
deleted 20 characters in body; edited tags
May 6, 2023 at 6:36 answer added user365522 timeline score: 2
May 5, 2023 at 22:52 comment added nicoguaro Does $\mathbf{u} = \mathbf{0}$ satisfy the conditions? Because $\nabla \times \mathbf{u} = \mathbf{0}$ and $\nabla \cdot \mathbf{u} = 0$ and $\lim_{\mathbf{x} \rightarrow 0} \mathbf{u}= 0$.
May 5, 2023 at 22:33 comment added HEMMI I'm not good at English, but I thought that Griffith's English in the first quote might be misleading. I think it should be "there is no non zero function with zero ..." instead of "there is no function with zero ..."?
May 5, 2023 at 22:28 comment added hyportnex yes, $\text{curl} \mathbf = 0$ is equivalent to that $\oint \mathbf u \cdot d\ell =0$ for any loop from which you can uniquely define $\phi(\mathcal P) =\int_{\mathcal P_0}^{\mathcal P} \mathbf u \cdot d\ell$ for some fixed $\mathcal P_0$ and variable $\mathcal P$, and finally $\frac{d\phi}{d\ell}=\text{grad} \phi =\mathbf u $
May 5, 2023 at 22:16 comment added Helios Though I have a question, does curl u = 0 enforces u = grad phi. Where phi is some scalar?
May 5, 2023 at 22:11 comment added Helios That makes a lot of sense yeah, thank you. And by uniqueness theorem that it applies to all functions I am guessing. Thank you
May 5, 2023 at 21:58 comment added hyportnex Does this help: If $\text{curl} \mathbf u = 0$ then $\mathbf u = \text{grad} \phi$ for some scalar $\phi$ and from $\text{div} \mathbf u = 0 $ you get $\text{div grad} \phi = \nabla^2 \phi =0$.
S May 5, 2023 at 21:50 review First questions
May 5, 2023 at 22:54
S May 5, 2023 at 21:50 history asked Helios CC BY-SA 4.0