Timeline for Why this form of Lorentz force law in Gaussian units?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
11 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Apr 11, 2023 at 20:09 | answer | added | Mauricio | timeline score: 0 | |
| Apr 11, 2023 at 18:42 | comment | added | EE18 | @Mauricio I see, so you agree with Triatticus above who said $\textbf{M} = 0$ is here being assumed by the authors? | |
| Apr 11, 2023 at 18:29 | comment | added | Mauricio | Sorry my statement was wrong, see Eq. 14a in here arxiv.org/abs/1312.3383 for Lorentz force in media. In the case where $\mathbf M=0$ and no electric fields, in gaussian units you have $\mathbf B=\mathbf H$ so you get the formula above. | |
| Apr 11, 2023 at 14:50 | comment | added | EE18 | @Mauricio Can you please provide a reference for that? I checked my textbooks and can't find that statement anywhere. | |
| Apr 11, 2023 at 11:55 | answer | added | Jerrold Franklin | timeline score: 0 | |
| Apr 10, 2023 at 1:43 | comment | added | EE18 | @Triatticus Oy, I forgot most materials were nonmagnetic and was confusing with the dielectric case. Thanks for clarifying. If you supply an official answer I'd be happy to give it a green check. Thanks again! | |
| Apr 9, 2023 at 18:57 | comment | added | Triatticus | It will certainly depend on the magnetic suceptibility of the material, and I don't personally own that book so I don't have the actual context. | |
| Apr 9, 2023 at 17:41 | history | edited | Qmechanic♦ |
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| Apr 9, 2023 at 17:38 | comment | added | EE18 | @Triatticus I suppose that's an assumption which is a bit odd in an arbitrary material though no? Even in a metal? | |
| Apr 9, 2023 at 17:09 | comment | added | Triatticus | If you look directly on the page for gaussian units they will only be the same if there is no magnetization which is likely the assumption here. | |
| Apr 9, 2023 at 16:46 | history | asked | EE18 | CC BY-SA 4.0 |