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Feb 13, 2023 at 17:57 vote accept Sumit Gupta
Feb 12, 2023 at 23:28 answer added GiorgioP-DoomsdayClockIsAt-90 timeline score: 2
Feb 12, 2023 at 17:28 comment added Sumit Gupta @TobiasFünke Thanks, I got it. I considered the thermodynamic limit the classical limit (large V and large N but finite). I didn't pay much attention to the thermodynamic limit definition ($V\to\infty$ and $N \to \infty$ but finite $\frac{N}{V}$).
Feb 12, 2023 at 17:22 comment added Tobias Fünke I guess you should read what thermodynamic limit means... What source are you following?
Feb 12, 2023 at 17:14 history edited Sumit Gupta CC BY-SA 4.0
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Feb 12, 2023 at 17:13 comment added Sumit Gupta @TobiasFünke In my mind, there is this example of ideal classical gas, so I am considering that $V$ would be finite in the thermodynamic limit. Is anything wrong in my understanding? Also, changing the $\rangle$
Feb 12, 2023 at 17:08 history edited Tobias Fünke
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Feb 12, 2023 at 17:08 comment added Tobias Fünke Why is $V$ finite? Despite that, use \langle and \rangle to get $\langle$ and $\rangle$, respectively.
Feb 12, 2023 at 17:05 history asked Sumit Gupta CC BY-SA 4.0