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Jan 26, 2023 at 9:46 comment added hyportnex TYPO ALERT! Thanks for noticing,
Jan 26, 2023 at 9:46 history edited hyportnex CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jan 26, 2023 at 9:37 comment added CodingFryCook Thank you for this amazing answer! I do have one more question though: f(x) should be replaced with f(t) in $F_{p}(\omega)$? If no, why is this the case?
Jan 25, 2023 at 21:39 comment added Massimo Ortolano Right. I’ve also talked about this difference in conventions in this answer, when referring to phasors: physics.stackexchange.com/a/687491/111969 Another point worth noting is that frequently engineers define the Fourier transform as a function of the frequency rather than the angular frequency, because frequency is what instruments indicate and you can also get rid of the $2\pi$ factors in front of the integrals.
Jan 25, 2023 at 15:05 vote accept CodingFryCook
Jan 25, 2023 at 14:36 comment added Triatticus It seems to depend on physicist. I have more often seen the symmetrical version normalized with $\frac{1}{\sqrt{2 \pi}}$.
Jan 25, 2023 at 13:26 history answered hyportnex CC BY-SA 4.0