Timeline for How is the non-locality of a theory apparent from its mathematical form?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
9 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Dec 22, 2022 at 7:31 | vote | accept | NeonGabu | ||
| Dec 21, 2022 at 13:09 | answer | added | Valter Moretti | timeline score: 1 | |
| Dec 21, 2022 at 8:44 | comment | added | Qmechanic♦ | Possible duplicates: physics.stackexchange.com/q/13624/2451 and links therein. | |
| Dec 21, 2022 at 8:42 | history | edited | Qmechanic♦ | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
deleted 19 characters in body; edited tags
|
| Dec 21, 2022 at 7:24 | comment | added | Valter Moretti | Non locality arises from the Paley-Wiener theorem again in fourier representation because $\sqrt{m^2+ p^2}$ is not an entire analyitic function. It does not matter if the Taylor expansion includes infinite terms. | |
| Dec 21, 2022 at 7:21 | comment | added | Valter Moretti | The written equation is covariant, in the sense that if $\psi$ is a scalar field, it solves that equation in every reference frame as it follows by passing in Fourier representation. It is simply a positive energy KG field. | |
| Dec 21, 2022 at 5:49 | answer | added | amogh waghmare | timeline score: 2 | |
| Dec 21, 2022 at 4:32 | history | edited | NeonGabu | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
edited title
|
| Dec 21, 2022 at 4:21 | history | asked | NeonGabu | CC BY-SA 4.0 |