Timeline for Are commuting operators a function of the other?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
9 events
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Nov 24, 2022 at 19:27 | comment | added | leftaroundabout | FTR, this question doesn't really make sense if you write "for some function $f$". I could make it trivially true by defining $f(o) := B$, i.e. it ignores the input and maps any operator to $B$. What you actually mean is "for some scalar function $f$", and the (admittedly standard) notation $f(A)$ doesn't actually refer to function application, but rather to application of the operator-lifted version of the function (i.e., applied to the eigenvalues). | |
Nov 24, 2022 at 18:00 | history | tweeted | twitter.com/StackPhysics/status/1595839697124839425 | ||
Nov 24, 2022 at 16:27 | history | became hot network question | |||
Nov 24, 2022 at 10:28 | vote | accept | peep | ||
Nov 24, 2022 at 9:36 | answer | added | Qmechanic♦ | timeline score: 5 | |
Nov 24, 2022 at 9:35 | answer | added | Valter Moretti | timeline score: 9 | |
Nov 24, 2022 at 9:26 | history | edited | Qmechanic♦ |
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Nov 24, 2022 at 8:53 | answer | added | peep | timeline score: 3 | |
Nov 24, 2022 at 8:26 | history | asked | peep | CC BY-SA 4.0 |