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Nov 17, 2022 at 13:54 comment added mmesser314 +1, but a better example might have been $\mathbb{C}^3$ and the set $(1,0,0)$ and $(0,1,0)$. These are more obviously orthonormal but not complete.
Nov 17, 2022 at 13:20 vote accept schris38
Nov 17, 2022 at 13:20 comment added schris38 Okay thanks @MichaelSeifert
Nov 17, 2022 at 13:00 comment added Michael Seifert @schris38: Setting aside the double negatives: A set of vectors can be (a) mutually orthogonal, (b) a basis for the space they're a part of, (c) both, or (d) neither. All options are possible.
Nov 17, 2022 at 12:58 comment added schris38 So, not being complete does not necessarily mean that they are not orthogonal, or am I wrong?
Nov 17, 2022 at 12:48 history answered Janik CC BY-SA 4.0