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Oct 15, 2022 at 11:05 history closed Tobias Fünke
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Duplicate of Do derivatives of operators act on the operator itself or are they "added to the tail" of operators?
Oct 15, 2022 at 8:54 comment added Tobias Fünke No, $H=i\hbar \partial/\partial t$ makes no sense! $H$ is an operator on the Hilbert space, the time-derivative is not.
Oct 15, 2022 at 8:42 history edited Voulkos CC BY-SA 4.0
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Oct 15, 2022 at 8:33 comment added a Fish in Dirac Sea physics.stackexchange.com/q/436023 This similar question helps too
Oct 15, 2022 at 8:30 vote accept a Fish in Dirac Sea
Oct 15, 2022 at 8:27 review Close votes
Oct 15, 2022 at 11:10
Oct 15, 2022 at 8:22 comment added a Fish in Dirac Sea @TobiasFünke Thanks for your comment sir! So technically, $H=i\hbar\frac{\partial}{\partial t}$ act on Hilbert space but the time derivative dosen't, am I right?
Oct 15, 2022 at 8:20 history edited Qmechanic CC BY-SA 4.0
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Oct 15, 2022 at 8:18 answer added Qmechanic timeline score: 2
Oct 15, 2022 at 8:06 comment added Tobias Fünke Note that the time derivative is not an operator on the Hilbert space, tho. So if with $A=\partial /\partial t$ you mean the time derivative, this makes no sense.
Oct 15, 2022 at 8:05 comment added a Fish in Dirac Sea @Qmechanic Oh thank you sooooo much!!
Oct 15, 2022 at 7:53 comment added Qmechanic Possibly related: Do derivatives of operators act on the operator itself or are they "added to the tail" of operators?
Oct 15, 2022 at 7:05 history edited Qmechanic CC BY-SA 4.0
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Oct 15, 2022 at 6:05 history edited Qmechanic CC BY-SA 4.0
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Oct 15, 2022 at 4:55 history asked a Fish in Dirac Sea CC BY-SA 4.0