Since the wave is an transverse wave the particles will move perpendicular to the direction of propagation so we can eliminate B,D
Now we know that the velocity of any particle is given by V(Particle)=-V(wave)*(Slope of the graph at particle) $v_{Particle}=-v_{wave}*\text{(Slope of the graph at particle)}$
Proof: Let Let equation of wave be y=ASin(wt-kx+a) Then Velocity$y=A\;sin(wt-kx+a)$ then velocity of particle is: dy/dt= V(p)=AwCos(wt-kx) -i$\frac{dy}{dt} = v_{particle}=A \omega \; cos(wt-kx)$ ①
Slope of graph is:dy/dx=m=-AkCos(wt-kx+a) -ii$dy/dx= m =- Ak \; cos(wt-kx+a)$ ②
From equation i①,ii ②: V(p)=-w/k(m)=-V $v_{particle}=-\omega/k*m=-v_{wave}*m$ (w)*m {Since Velocityvelocity of wave is given by w/k}$\frac{w}{k}$)
As per the given question wave travels from left to right I.eie v(w)=+ve= positive and the Slopeslope of graph at given particle toolocation is +ve So V(p)=(-ve)(+ve)(+ve)=-vealso positive So if we apply this, $-(\text{positive }v_{wave})(\text{positive slope})=\text{negative }v_{particle}$, so it moves downward (c is your answer)