Timeline for Is time dilation due to relative velocity equivalent in principle to time dilation due to relative gravitational strength?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
6 events
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| Apr 10, 2022 at 22:27 | comment | added | Myridium | Okay, thanks for your response. I'll keep this in mind when I study GR properly. | |
| Apr 8, 2022 at 3:42 | history | edited | Cleonis | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
Corrected a grammatical error
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| Apr 8, 2022 at 3:40 | comment | added | Cleonis | @Myridium Indeed the amount of proper time that elapses for satellites is not solely a function of their orbital velocity. It is a function of both relative velocity and difference of gravitational potential. GR subsumes time dilation effects into a single effect. The way Kevin Brown set up the derivation reflects that. The derivation by Kevin Brown addresses the total effect, rather than evaluating the velocity aspect and the gravitational aspect separately. Your insistence that there is an intrinsic distinction suggests that you don't quite accept the principle of equivalence. | |
| Apr 8, 2022 at 1:23 | comment | added | Myridium | This is incorrect. The time dilation experienced by satellites is not what you would calculate from their orbital velocity. Time dilation in a gravitational well is distinct from time dilation due to velocity. See e.g. physics.stackexchange.com/questions/219573/… | |
| Apr 7, 2022 at 20:20 | history | edited | Cleonis | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
I added a transcript of the derivation by Kevin Brown in the thread 'relativistic time on satellites in the sci.physics newsgroup, 1997
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| Apr 7, 2022 at 18:25 | history | answered | Cleonis | CC BY-SA 4.0 |