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Mar 14, 2022 at 22:31 vote accept ProblemDestroyer
Mar 14, 2022 at 22:30 comment added ProblemDestroyer Understood fully Sir one relation can be setup between E° and k using dot product isnt = 0 ?
Mar 14, 2022 at 19:53 comment added Philip Wood Do you really want $$ E_x = E_{x,0} \cos\left(\frac{2\pi}{\lambda}\mathbf{\hat k} \cdot \mathbf r -\frac{2\pi}{T} t+\phi_0\right) ?$$ and similarly for $E_y$ and $E_z$. Note that these field directions have nothing to do with $k_x, k_y, k_z$.
Mar 14, 2022 at 19:51 comment added Philip Wood (a) "how do we prove that direction of propagation is same as kunit vector direction ?" The key sentence in my answer is the first sentence under the first equation. As the wave travels the perpendicular distance, $\mathbf{\hat k}\cdot \mathbf r$ from the origin of a wavefront (plane of constant phase) changes. This can happen only by the wavefront moving at right angles to itself, that is in the direction of $\mathbf{\hat k}$ (b) "can you once write the general wave expression in terms of Ex,Ey ,Ez components instead of E_o ?" I don't know quite what you want here. (continued)
Mar 14, 2022 at 8:03 comment added ProblemDestroyer Yeah sure no problem
Mar 14, 2022 at 7:58 comment added Philip Wood Haven't time to answer just now. Will have a go in a few hours time.
Mar 14, 2022 at 7:20 comment added ProblemDestroyer Nice answer few things which i didnt get correctly : how do we prove that direction of propagation is same as kunit vector direction ? As for a 1-D case i can easily imagine at two times . But here i cant , and can you once write the general wave expression in terms of Ex,Ey ,Ez components instead of E_o ? Will the k unit vector will break into parts k_x when we are expressing as above? If yes why ? Why not k(unit vector )?
Mar 13, 2022 at 16:13 history edited Philip Wood CC BY-SA 4.0
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Mar 12, 2022 at 23:24 history edited Philip Wood CC BY-SA 4.0
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Mar 12, 2022 at 23:12 history answered Philip Wood CC BY-SA 4.0