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Apr 3, 2022 at 17:40 comment added Kieran @Mauricio Thank you for the reply. In other words, if I multiply the spin-orbit coupling term in the followings: $$e^{i\pi J_y}\langle d_{xy}\uparrow|\xi L\cdot\sigma|p_{z}\downarrow\rangle$$; where $$e^{i\pi J_y}$$ is the time reversal operator, this term should change the sign. Am I correct? If so, how to choose $J_y$, the y-component of the angular momentum operator, for different term? I think that this operator varies with different orbital $p_z$,$d_{xy}$. Thank you.
Mar 17, 2022 at 9:41 comment added Mauricio Spin orbit does not change sign under time reversal that's the whole point of Kramers theorem.
Mar 8, 2022 at 17:40 history asked Kieran CC BY-SA 4.0