Timeline for How is classical mechanics recovered when the commutator is zero?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
11 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| May 29, 2023 at 7:05 | vote | accept | Ryder Rude | ||
| Jan 1, 2022 at 3:18 | answer | added | Ryder Rude | timeline score: 0 | |
| Dec 31, 2021 at 20:43 | history | edited | Cosmas Zachos | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
deleted 2 characters in body
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| Dec 31, 2021 at 16:33 | comment | added | Cosmas Zachos | The expression you wrote is a 0/0 chimera, based on a non-existent Heisenberg equation of motion and Ehrenfest theorem! Recall that, "in real life", the rhs is $2 \frac{i\hbar}{i\hbar} \langle P \rangle=2 \langle P \rangle$ ... | |
| Dec 31, 2021 at 16:03 | comment | added | Cosmas Zachos | No, it is not, of course. You compared apples with oranges: operators with phase-space functions; but you broke all the rules! The vanishing of ℏ→0 is just the icing on the cake. Are you familiar with the KvN operator description of classical mechanics? As @ZeroTheHero points out, you could instead translate everything to phase-space language and then the limit is less ill-defined. | |
| Dec 31, 2021 at 15:49 | answer | added | ZeroTheHero | timeline score: 2 | |
| Dec 31, 2021 at 11:25 | comment | added | ACuriousMind♦ | You seem to have a very simplistic view of how a "classical limit" is supposed to work. See e.g. physics.stackexchange.com/q/56151/50583, physics.stackexchange.com/q/457601/50583 for discussion of what the $\hbar\to 0$ or "everything commutes" limit of QM is really supposed to mean. | |
| Dec 31, 2021 at 10:43 | answer | added | Hermitian_hermit | timeline score: 0 | |
| Dec 31, 2021 at 10:06 | history | edited | Níckolas Alves | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
Improved formatting
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| Dec 31, 2021 at 10:04 | history | edited | Qmechanic♦ |
edited tags
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| Dec 31, 2021 at 10:01 | history | asked | Ryder Rude | CC BY-SA 4.0 |