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Dec 21, 2021 at 13:24 vote accept OutrageousKangaroo
Dec 18, 2021 at 14:58 answer added Connor Behan timeline score: 3
Dec 18, 2021 at 13:07 comment added OutrageousKangaroo I'm not sure I understand
Dec 18, 2021 at 13:05 comment added Qmechanic Morally, it should be equivalent.
Dec 18, 2021 at 13:02 comment added OutrageousKangaroo I did not do Wilsonian renormalization (yet). Is there another way to see this? Because he said it as if it was the most obvious thing in the world, and that made me think there must have been an easy way to prove it
Dec 18, 2021 at 12:56 comment added Qmechanic Possible duplicates: physics.stackexchange.com/q/665144/2451 , physics.stackexchange.com/q/210275/2451
Dec 18, 2021 at 12:54 history edited Qmechanic CC BY-SA 4.0
added 5 characters in body; edited tags; edited tags
Dec 18, 2021 at 12:12 history asked OutrageousKangaroo CC BY-SA 4.0