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jensen paull
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This is a way to prove convergence and also to understand why this integral represents potential energy between two charge distributions. Another way to look at this is

$$\iiint \frac{1}{2} \epsilon_0(\vec{E}_1+\vec{E}_2)^2d\tau $$ : $$\iiint \frac{1}{2} \epsilon_0(\vec{E}_1)^2d\tau +$$

$$\iiint \frac{1}{2} \epsilon_0(\vec{E}_2)^2d\tau +$$

$$\iiint \epsilon_0\vec{E}_1\cdot\vec{E}_2\,d\tau$$ The last component represents PD between charge distributions, $$=\iiint \epsilon_0\vec{E}_1\cdot(-\nabla V_{2})\,d\tau.$$ Rearranging the vector field identity $$\nabla \cdot (V_{2}\vec{E}_1) = V_{2} \nabla \cdot \vec{E}_1 + \vec{E}_{1} \cdot \nabla V_{2},$$ gives $$\vec{E}_{1} \cdot (-\nabla V_{2})= -\nabla\cdot(V_{2}\vec{E}_1) + V_{2} \nabla \cdot\vec{E}_1.$$ Substituting this in the integral gives $$\iiint\epsilon_0\left[-\nabla \cdot (V_{2}\vec{E}_1) + V_{2} \nabla \cdot \vec{E}_1\right]d\tau$$ $$=-\iiint\epsilon_0 \nabla \cdot (V_{2}\vec{E}_1)\,d\tau+\iiint \epsilon_0V_{2} \nabla \cdot \vec{E}_{1}\,d\tau.$$

Invoking Stokes' Theorem on the first integral gives $$-\iint\epsilon_0 (V_{2}\vec{E}_1) \cdot d\vec{S}+ \iiint\epsilon_0 V_{2} \nabla \cdot \vec{E}_1\,d\tau.$$ With the integration volume as all of space, the surface integral evaluates to zero for localized sources, since at large distances $(r\rightarrow\infty)$, the integrand falls off as $V_{2}\vec{E}_{1}\sim r^{-3}$. This leaves $$\iiint\epsilon_0V_{2} \nabla \cdot \vec{E}_1\,d\tau.$$ Invoking Gauss' Law, $$\iiint\epsilon_0 V_{2} \frac{\rho_1}{\epsilon_0}\,d\tau$$ $$=\iiint V_{2} \rho_1\,d\tau$$

In this form, it is clear to see why it represents potential energy, as you are building up charge distribution 1 in the presence of potential 2.

In this form you can also understand why it converges, as the $V\rho$ is always a finite number, because $V$ is never evaluated at any point that causes it to be infinity.

This is a way to prove convergence and also to understand why this integral represents potential energy between two charge distributions. Another way to look at this is $$\iiint \epsilon_0\vec{E}_1\cdot\vec{E}_2\,d\tau$$ $$=\iiint \epsilon_0\vec{E}_1\cdot(-\nabla V_{2})\,d\tau.$$ Rearranging the vector field identity $$\nabla \cdot (V_{2}\vec{E}_1) = V_{2} \nabla \cdot \vec{E}_1 + \vec{E}_{1} \cdot \nabla V_{2},$$ gives $$\vec{E}_{1} \cdot (-\nabla V_{2})= -\nabla\cdot(V_{2}\vec{E}_1) + V_{2} \nabla \cdot\vec{E}_1.$$ Substituting this in the integral gives $$\iiint\epsilon_0\left[-\nabla \cdot (V_{2}\vec{E}_1) + V_{2} \nabla \cdot \vec{E}_1\right]d\tau$$ $$=-\iiint\epsilon_0 \nabla \cdot (V_{2}\vec{E}_1)\,d\tau+\iiint \epsilon_0V_{2} \nabla \cdot \vec{E}_{1}\,d\tau.$$

Invoking Stokes' Theorem on the first integral gives $$-\iint\epsilon_0 (V_{2}\vec{E}_1) \cdot d\vec{S}+ \iiint\epsilon_0 V_{2} \nabla \cdot \vec{E}_1\,d\tau.$$ With the integration volume as all of space, the surface integral evaluates to zero for localized sources, since at large distances $(r\rightarrow\infty)$, the integrand falls off as $V_{2}\vec{E}_{1}\sim r^{-3}$. This leaves $$\iiint\epsilon_0V_{2} \nabla \cdot \vec{E}_1\,d\tau.$$ Invoking Gauss' Law, $$\iiint\epsilon_0 V_{2} \frac{\rho_1}{\epsilon_0}\,d\tau$$ $$=\iiint V_{2} \rho_1\,d\tau$$

In this form, it is clear to see why it represents potential energy, as you are building up charge distribution 1 in the presence of potential 2.

In this form you can also understand why it converges, as the $V\rho$ is always a finite number, because $V$ is never evaluated at any point that causes it to be infinity.

This is a way to prove convergence and also to understand why this integral represents potential energy between two charge distributions. Another way to look at this is

$$\iiint \frac{1}{2} \epsilon_0(\vec{E}_1+\vec{E}_2)^2d\tau $$ : $$\iiint \frac{1}{2} \epsilon_0(\vec{E}_1)^2d\tau +$$

$$\iiint \frac{1}{2} \epsilon_0(\vec{E}_2)^2d\tau +$$

$$\iiint \epsilon_0\vec{E}_1\cdot\vec{E}_2\,d\tau$$ The last component represents PD between charge distributions, $$=\iiint \epsilon_0\vec{E}_1\cdot(-\nabla V_{2})\,d\tau.$$ Rearranging the vector field identity $$\nabla \cdot (V_{2}\vec{E}_1) = V_{2} \nabla \cdot \vec{E}_1 + \vec{E}_{1} \cdot \nabla V_{2},$$ gives $$\vec{E}_{1} \cdot (-\nabla V_{2})= -\nabla\cdot(V_{2}\vec{E}_1) + V_{2} \nabla \cdot\vec{E}_1.$$ Substituting this in the integral gives $$\iiint\epsilon_0\left[-\nabla \cdot (V_{2}\vec{E}_1) + V_{2} \nabla \cdot \vec{E}_1\right]d\tau$$ $$=-\iiint\epsilon_0 \nabla \cdot (V_{2}\vec{E}_1)\,d\tau+\iiint \epsilon_0V_{2} \nabla \cdot \vec{E}_{1}\,d\tau.$$

Invoking Stokes' Theorem on the first integral gives $$-\iint\epsilon_0 (V_{2}\vec{E}_1) \cdot d\vec{S}+ \iiint\epsilon_0 V_{2} \nabla \cdot \vec{E}_1\,d\tau.$$ With the integration volume as all of space, the surface integral evaluates to zero for localized sources, since at large distances $(r\rightarrow\infty)$, the integrand falls off as $V_{2}\vec{E}_{1}\sim r^{-3}$. This leaves $$\iiint\epsilon_0V_{2} \nabla \cdot \vec{E}_1\,d\tau.$$ Invoking Gauss' Law, $$\iiint\epsilon_0 V_{2} \frac{\rho_1}{\epsilon_0}\,d\tau$$ $$=\iiint V_{2} \rho_1\,d\tau$$

In this form, it is clear to see why it represents potential energy, as you are building up charge distribution 1 in the presence of potential 2.

In this form you can also understand why it converges, as the $V\rho$ is always a finite number, because $V$ is never evaluated at any point that causes it to be infinity.

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Buzz
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AThis is a way to prove convergence and also to understand why this integral represents potential energy between 2two charge distributions. Another way to look at this is

$$\iiint \epsilon_0\vec{E_1}.\vec{E_2}d\tau$$ $$\iiint \epsilon_0\vec{E_1}.(-\nabla V_{2})d\tau$$

Using$$\iiint \epsilon_0\vec{E}_1\cdot\vec{E}_2\,d\tau$$ $$=\iiint \epsilon_0\vec{E}_1\cdot(-\nabla V_{2})\,d\tau.$$ Rearranging the vector field identity

$$\nabla \cdot (V_{2}\vec{E_1}) = V_{2} \nabla \cdot \vec{E_1} + \vec{E_{1}} \cdot \nabla V_{2}$$

$$\vec{E_{1}} \cdot (-\nabla V_{2})= -\nabla\cdot(V_{2}\vec{E_1}) + V_{2} \nabla \cdot\vec{E_1} $$

Substituting $$\nabla \cdot (V_{2}\vec{E}_1) = V_{2} \nabla \cdot \vec{E}_1 + \vec{E}_{1} \cdot \nabla V_{2},$$ gives $$\vec{E}_{1} \cdot (-\nabla V_{2})= -\nabla\cdot(V_{2}\vec{E}_1) + V_{2} \nabla \cdot\vec{E}_1.$$ Substituting this in the integral gives

$$\iiint\epsilon_0( -\nabla \cdot (V_{2}\vec{E_1}) + V_{2} \nabla \cdot \vec{E_1} )d\tau$$

$$\iiint-\epsilon_0 \nabla \cdot (V_{2}\vec{E_1}) d\tau+\iiint \epsilon_0V_{2} \nabla \cdot \vec{E_1} d\tau$$ $$\iiint\epsilon_0\left[-\nabla \cdot (V_{2}\vec{E}_1) + V_{2} \nabla \cdot \vec{E}_1\right]d\tau$$ $$=-\iiint\epsilon_0 \nabla \cdot (V_{2}\vec{E}_1)\,d\tau+\iiint \epsilon_0V_{2} \nabla \cdot \vec{E}_{1}\,d\tau.$$

Envoking stokes theoremInvoking Stokes' Theorem on the first integral

$$\iint-\epsilon_0 (V_{2}\vec{E_1}) \cdot d\vec{S}+ \iiint\epsilon_0 V_{2} \nabla \cdot \vec{E_1} d\tau$$

Lim V goes to infinity gives $$-\iint\epsilon_0 (V_{2}\vec{E}_1) \cdot d\vec{S}+ \iiint\epsilon_0 V_{2} \nabla \cdot \vec{E}_1\,d\tau.$$ With the integration volume as all of space, the surface integral evaluates to zero

$$\iiint\epsilon_0V_{2} \nabla \cdot \vec{E_1} d\tau$$

Envoking gauss law

$$\iiint\epsilon_0 V_{2} \frac{\rho_1}{\epsilon_0} d\tau$$

$$\iiint V_{2} \rho_1 d\tau$$ for localized sources, since at large distances $(r\rightarrow\infty)$, the integrand falls off as $V_{2}\vec{E}_{1}\sim r^{-3}$. This leaves $$\iiint\epsilon_0V_{2} \nabla \cdot \vec{E}_1\,d\tau.$$ Invoking Gauss' Law, $$\iiint\epsilon_0 V_{2} \frac{\rho_1}{\epsilon_0}\,d\tau$$ $$=\iiint V_{2} \rho_1\,d\tau$$

In this form, it is clear to see why it represents potential energy. As, as you are building up chargecharge distribution 1 in the presence of potential 2.

In this form you can also understand why it converges, as the V$\rho$$V\rho$ is always a finite number as V, because $V$ is never evaluated at any point that causes it to be infinity.

A way to prove convergence and also to understand why this integral represents potential energy between 2 charge distributions. Another way to look at this is

$$\iiint \epsilon_0\vec{E_1}.\vec{E_2}d\tau$$ $$\iiint \epsilon_0\vec{E_1}.(-\nabla V_{2})d\tau$$

Using the vector field identity

$$\nabla \cdot (V_{2}\vec{E_1}) = V_{2} \nabla \cdot \vec{E_1} + \vec{E_{1}} \cdot \nabla V_{2}$$

$$\vec{E_{1}} \cdot (-\nabla V_{2})= -\nabla\cdot(V_{2}\vec{E_1}) + V_{2} \nabla \cdot\vec{E_1} $$

Substituting this in the integral gives

$$\iiint\epsilon_0( -\nabla \cdot (V_{2}\vec{E_1}) + V_{2} \nabla \cdot \vec{E_1} )d\tau$$

$$\iiint-\epsilon_0 \nabla \cdot (V_{2}\vec{E_1}) d\tau+\iiint \epsilon_0V_{2} \nabla \cdot \vec{E_1} d\tau$$

Envoking stokes theorem on the first integral

$$\iint-\epsilon_0 (V_{2}\vec{E_1}) \cdot d\vec{S}+ \iiint\epsilon_0 V_{2} \nabla \cdot \vec{E_1} d\tau$$

Lim V goes to infinity the surface integral evaluates to zero

$$\iiint\epsilon_0V_{2} \nabla \cdot \vec{E_1} d\tau$$

Envoking gauss law

$$\iiint\epsilon_0 V_{2} \frac{\rho_1}{\epsilon_0} d\tau$$

$$\iiint V_{2} \rho_1 d\tau$$

In this form it is clear to see why it represents potential energy. As you are building up charge distribution 1 in the presence of potential 2

In this form you can also understand why it converges, as the V$\rho$ is always a finite number as V is never evaluated at any point that causes it to be infinity

This is a way to prove convergence and also to understand why this integral represents potential energy between two charge distributions. Another way to look at this is $$\iiint \epsilon_0\vec{E}_1\cdot\vec{E}_2\,d\tau$$ $$=\iiint \epsilon_0\vec{E}_1\cdot(-\nabla V_{2})\,d\tau.$$ Rearranging the vector field identity $$\nabla \cdot (V_{2}\vec{E}_1) = V_{2} \nabla \cdot \vec{E}_1 + \vec{E}_{1} \cdot \nabla V_{2},$$ gives $$\vec{E}_{1} \cdot (-\nabla V_{2})= -\nabla\cdot(V_{2}\vec{E}_1) + V_{2} \nabla \cdot\vec{E}_1.$$ Substituting this in the integral gives $$\iiint\epsilon_0\left[-\nabla \cdot (V_{2}\vec{E}_1) + V_{2} \nabla \cdot \vec{E}_1\right]d\tau$$ $$=-\iiint\epsilon_0 \nabla \cdot (V_{2}\vec{E}_1)\,d\tau+\iiint \epsilon_0V_{2} \nabla \cdot \vec{E}_{1}\,d\tau.$$

Invoking Stokes' Theorem on the first integral gives $$-\iint\epsilon_0 (V_{2}\vec{E}_1) \cdot d\vec{S}+ \iiint\epsilon_0 V_{2} \nabla \cdot \vec{E}_1\,d\tau.$$ With the integration volume as all of space, the surface integral evaluates to zero for localized sources, since at large distances $(r\rightarrow\infty)$, the integrand falls off as $V_{2}\vec{E}_{1}\sim r^{-3}$. This leaves $$\iiint\epsilon_0V_{2} \nabla \cdot \vec{E}_1\,d\tau.$$ Invoking Gauss' Law, $$\iiint\epsilon_0 V_{2} \frac{\rho_1}{\epsilon_0}\,d\tau$$ $$=\iiint V_{2} \rho_1\,d\tau$$

In this form, it is clear to see why it represents potential energy, as you are building up charge distribution 1 in the presence of potential 2.

In this form you can also understand why it converges, as the $V\rho$ is always a finite number, because $V$ is never evaluated at any point that causes it to be infinity.

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jensen paull
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not specifically answering the question, but i think it's usefullA way to prove convergence and also to understand why this integral represents potential energy between 2 charge distributions. Another way to look at this is

$$\iiint \epsilon_0\vec{E_1}.\vec{E_2}d\tau$$ $$\iiint \epsilon_0\vec{E_1}.(-\nabla V_{2})d\tau$$

Using the vector field identity

$$\nabla \cdot (V_{2}\vec{E_1}) = V_{2} \nabla \cdot \vec{E_1} + \vec{E_{1}} \cdot \nabla V_{2}$$

$$\vec{E_{1}} \cdot (-\nabla V_{2})= -\nabla\cdot(V_{2}\vec{E_1}) + V_{2} \nabla \cdot\vec{E_1} $$

Substituting this in the integral gives

$$\iiint\epsilon_0( -\nabla \cdot (V_{2}\vec{E_1}) + V_{2} \nabla \cdot \vec{E_1} )d\tau$$

$$\iiint-\epsilon_0 \nabla \cdot (V_{2}\vec{E_1}) d\tau+\iiint \epsilon_0V_{2} \nabla \cdot \vec{E_1} d\tau$$

Envoking stokes theorem on the first integral

$$\iint-\epsilon_0 (V_{2}\vec{E_1}) \cdot d\vec{S}+ \iiint\epsilon_0 V_{2} \nabla \cdot \vec{E_1} d\tau$$

Lim V goes to infinity the surface integral evaluates to zero

$$\iiint\epsilon_0V_{2} \nabla \cdot \vec{E_1} d\tau$$

Envoking gauss law

$$\iiint\epsilon_0 V_{2} \frac{\rho_1}{\epsilon_0} d\tau$$

$$\iiint V_{2} \rho_1 d\tau$$

In this form it is clear to see why it represents potential energy. As you are building up charge distribution 1 in the presence of potential 2

In this form you can also understand why it converges, as the V$\rho$ is always a finite number. as V is never evaluated at any point that causes it to be infinity

not specifically answering the question, but i think it's usefull to understand why this integral represents potential energy between 2 charge distributions. Another way to look at this is

$$\iiint \epsilon_0\vec{E_1}.\vec{E_2}d\tau$$ $$\iiint \epsilon_0\vec{E_1}.(-\nabla V_{2})d\tau$$

Using the vector field identity

$$\nabla \cdot (V_{2}\vec{E_1}) = V_{2} \nabla \cdot \vec{E_1} + \vec{E_{1}} \cdot \nabla V_{2}$$

$$\vec{E_{1}} \cdot (-\nabla V_{2})= -\nabla\cdot(V_{2}\vec{E_1}) + V_{2} \nabla \cdot\vec{E_1} $$

Substituting this in the integral gives

$$\iiint\epsilon_0( -\nabla \cdot (V_{2}\vec{E_1}) + V_{2} \nabla \cdot \vec{E_1} )d\tau$$

$$\iiint-\epsilon_0 \nabla \cdot (V_{2}\vec{E_1}) d\tau+\iiint \epsilon_0V_{2} \nabla \cdot \vec{E_1} d\tau$$

Envoking stokes theorem on the first integral

$$\iint-\epsilon_0 (V_{2}\vec{E_1}) \cdot d\vec{S}+ \iiint\epsilon_0 V_{2} \nabla \cdot \vec{E_1} d\tau$$

Lim V goes to infinity the surface integral evaluates to zero

$$\iiint\epsilon_0V_{2} \nabla \cdot \vec{E_1} d\tau$$

Envoking gauss law

$$\iiint\epsilon_0 V_{2} \frac{\rho_1}{\epsilon_0} d\tau$$

$$\iiint V_{2} \rho_1 d\tau$$

In this form it is clear to see why it represents potential energy. As you are building up charge distribution 1 in the presence of potential 2

In this form you can also understand why it converges, as the V$\rho$ is always a finite number.

A way to prove convergence and also to understand why this integral represents potential energy between 2 charge distributions. Another way to look at this is

$$\iiint \epsilon_0\vec{E_1}.\vec{E_2}d\tau$$ $$\iiint \epsilon_0\vec{E_1}.(-\nabla V_{2})d\tau$$

Using the vector field identity

$$\nabla \cdot (V_{2}\vec{E_1}) = V_{2} \nabla \cdot \vec{E_1} + \vec{E_{1}} \cdot \nabla V_{2}$$

$$\vec{E_{1}} \cdot (-\nabla V_{2})= -\nabla\cdot(V_{2}\vec{E_1}) + V_{2} \nabla \cdot\vec{E_1} $$

Substituting this in the integral gives

$$\iiint\epsilon_0( -\nabla \cdot (V_{2}\vec{E_1}) + V_{2} \nabla \cdot \vec{E_1} )d\tau$$

$$\iiint-\epsilon_0 \nabla \cdot (V_{2}\vec{E_1}) d\tau+\iiint \epsilon_0V_{2} \nabla \cdot \vec{E_1} d\tau$$

Envoking stokes theorem on the first integral

$$\iint-\epsilon_0 (V_{2}\vec{E_1}) \cdot d\vec{S}+ \iiint\epsilon_0 V_{2} \nabla \cdot \vec{E_1} d\tau$$

Lim V goes to infinity the surface integral evaluates to zero

$$\iiint\epsilon_0V_{2} \nabla \cdot \vec{E_1} d\tau$$

Envoking gauss law

$$\iiint\epsilon_0 V_{2} \frac{\rho_1}{\epsilon_0} d\tau$$

$$\iiint V_{2} \rho_1 d\tau$$

In this form it is clear to see why it represents potential energy. As you are building up charge distribution 1 in the presence of potential 2

In this form you can also understand why it converges, as the V$\rho$ is always a finite number as V is never evaluated at any point that causes it to be infinity

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jensen paull
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