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When calculating the orbital energy of an electron in a hydrogen-like atom, the orbital velocity is required. However, to derive this value, the equation given is:

\begin{equation*} ZK_{e} e^{2}/r^{2} \end{equation*}

And \begin{equation*}K_{e}\end{equation*}is the atomic number. However, there are plenty of systems that behave with an electron orbital which are non-atomic, like those have an quantum potential well. In these cases, there is no single defined atomic orbitalnumber, so how would one go off calculating this?

When calculating the orbital energy of an electron in a hydrogen-like atom, the orbital velocity is required. However, to derive this value, the equation given is:

\begin{equation*} ZK_{e} e^{2}/r^{2} \end{equation*}

And \begin{equation*}K_{e}\end{equation*}is the atomic number. However, there are plenty of systems that behave with an electron orbital which are non-atomic, like those have an quantum potential well. In these cases, there is no single defined atomic orbital, so how would one go off calculating this?

When calculating the orbital energy of an electron in a hydrogen-like atom, the orbital velocity is required. However, to derive this value, the equation given is:

\begin{equation*} ZK_{e} e^{2}/r^{2} \end{equation*}

And \begin{equation*}K_{e}\end{equation*}is the atomic number. However, there are plenty of systems that behave with an electron orbital which are non-atomic, like those have an quantum potential well. In these cases, there is no single defined atomic number, so how would one go off calculating this?

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How does one calculate the Bohr energy of an electron in a non-atomic systems?

When calculating the orbital energy of an electron in a hydrogen-like atom, the orbital velocity is required. However, to derive this value, the equation given is:

\begin{equation*} ZK_{e} e^{2}/r^{2} \end{equation*}

And \begin{equation*}K_{e}\end{equation*}is the atomic number. However, there are plenty of systems that behave with an electron orbital which are non-atomic, like those have an quantum potential well. In these cases, there is no single defined atomic orbital, so how would one go off calculating this?