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Kashmiri
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We denote a scalar product of two vectors $a, b$ in Hilbert space $H$ as $(a,b)$ or $\langle a, b\rangle$.

In Bra-Ket notation, we denote a vector a$a$ in Hilbert space as $|a\rangle$. Also, we say that bras such as $\langle b|$belong belong to the dual space $H^*$ .

  So Bras are linear transformations that map kets to a number.

Then it isn't always true that $\langle a \mid b\rangle=(a,b)$.

In quantum mechanics dothe above equality holds, is it that we define bra in such a way so that the above equality holds? Are there cases when the above equation is not true?

We denote a scalar product of two vectors $a, b$ in Hilbert space $H$ as $(a,b)$ or $\langle a, b\rangle$.

In Bra-Ket notation, we denote a vector a in Hilbert space as $|a\rangle$. Also, we say that bras such as $\langle b|$belong to the dual space $H^*$ .

  So Bras are linear transformations that map kets to a number.

Then it isn't always true that $\langle a \mid b\rangle=(a,b)$.

In quantum mechanics do we define bra in such a way so that the above equality holds? Are there cases when the above equation is not true?

We denote a scalar product of two vectors $a, b$ in Hilbert space $H$ as $(a,b)$ or $\langle a, b\rangle$.

In Bra-Ket notation, we denote a vector $a$ in Hilbert space as $|a\rangle$. Also, we say that bras such as $\langle b|$ belong to the dual space $H^*$ . So Bras are linear transformations that map kets to a number.

Then it isn't always true that $\langle a \mid b\rangle=(a,b)$.

In quantum mechanics the above equality holds, is it that we define bra in such a way so that the above equality holds? Are there cases when the above equation is not true?

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Bra Ket-Ket and inner products

We denote a scalar product of two vectors $a, b$ in Hilbert space $H$ as $(a,b)$ or $\langle a, b\rangle$.

In Bra Ket-Ket notation, we denote a vector a in Hilbert space as $|a\rangle$. Also, we say that bras belongsuch as $\langle b|$belong to the dual space $H$$H^*$ .

So Bras are linear transformations that map kets to a number.

Then it isn't always true that $\langle a \mid b\rangle=(a,b)$.

In quantum mechanics do we define bra in such a way so as that the above equality holds? Are there cases when the above equation isis not true?

Bra Ket and inner products

We denote a scalar product of two vectors $a, b$ in Hilbert space $H$ as $(a,b)$.

In Bra Ket notation, we denote a vector a in Hilbert space as $|a\rangle$. Also we say that bras belong to the dual space $H$ .

So Bras are linear transformations that map kets to a number.

Then it isn't always true that $\langle a \mid b\rangle=(a,b)$.

In quantum mechanics do we define bra in such a way so as that the above equality holds? Are there cases when the above equation is not true?

Bra-Ket and inner products

We denote a scalar product of two vectors $a, b$ in Hilbert space $H$ as $(a,b)$ or $\langle a, b\rangle$.

In Bra-Ket notation, we denote a vector a in Hilbert space as $|a\rangle$. Also, we say that bras such as $\langle b|$belong to the dual space $H^*$ .

So Bras are linear transformations that map kets to a number.

Then it isn't always true that $\langle a \mid b\rangle=(a,b)$.

In quantum mechanics do we define bra in such a way so that the above equality holds? Are there cases when the above equation is not true?

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Kashmiri
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Bra Ket and inner products

We denote a scalar product of two vectors $a, b$ in Hilbert space $H$ as $(a,b)$.

In Bra Ket notation, we denote a vector a in Hilbert space as $|a\rangle$. Also we say that bras belong to the dual space $H$∗ .

So Bras are linear transformations that map kets to a number.

Then it isn't always true that $\langle a \mid b\rangle=(a,b)$.

In quantum mechanics do we define bra in such a way so as that the above equality holds? Are there cases when the above equation is not true?