Timeline for How can acceleration $a$ be zero when applied force $F$ is non-zero?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
14 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Jun 5, 2013 at 17:21 | answer | added | cuabanana | timeline score: 0 | |
| May 27, 2013 at 21:06 | history | protected | Qmechanic♦ | ||
| May 27, 2013 at 19:51 | answer | added | Patrick | timeline score: 2 | |
| S May 27, 2013 at 19:43 | vote | accept | Bogus Roads | ||
| May 27, 2013 at 19:43 | vote | accept | Bogus Roads | ||
| S May 27, 2013 at 19:43 | |||||
| May 27, 2013 at 19:43 | vote | accept | Bogus Roads | ||
| May 27, 2013 at 19:43 | |||||
| May 27, 2013 at 19:40 | comment | added | juan | This is impossible unless there is another opposing force | |
| May 27, 2013 at 19:35 | answer | added | John Alexiou | timeline score: 1 | |
| May 27, 2013 at 19:32 | answer | added | Ondřej Černotík | timeline score: 1 | |
| May 27, 2013 at 19:32 | comment | added | user4552 | "An object is at rest and stays at rest, but an attached rope pulls with increasing force." There must be some other force acting on the object that cancels out the force from the rope. Newton's second law refers to the total force acting on one object. In all of this, I don't see how it's relevant whether $F$ and $a$ are increasing. The issue is whether they're nonzero. | |
| May 27, 2013 at 19:32 | comment | added | John Alexiou | You have to consider the SUM of the forces, not just the force from the rope. | |
| May 27, 2013 at 19:30 | review | First posts | |||
| May 27, 2013 at 20:42 | |||||
| May 27, 2013 at 19:22 | history | edited | Qmechanic♦ | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
added 4 characters in body; edited tags; edited title
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| May 27, 2013 at 19:13 | history | asked | Bogus Roads | CC BY-SA 3.0 |