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Aug 24, 2021 at 20:03 comment added DIRAC1930 So we have to explicitly specify which irreps the state space carries? I.e. for the (n,m) representation of the Lorentz group we have to specify that the one-particle Hilbert space carries an irrep of $(0,0)$, $(0,1/2)$, $(1/2,0)$ etc. however does not carry a known irrep for $(n,m)$ such that $n,m > 3/2$?
Aug 24, 2021 at 16:40 comment added ZeroTheHero I don’t know of any particles with $j=72/2$. They may have angular momentum (spatial degree of freedom) that much, but not spin (internal degree of freedom). There is nothing that mathematically prevents particles with $s=36$, but we don't see them so any model with that contents is tossed aside.
Aug 24, 2021 at 16:26 comment added DIRAC1930 I'm just trying to figure out how a physical theory is built from symmetries and at the moment I'm confused because the rules seem arbitrary. For example, a single particle can have $j=72/2$ but it can't have $s=73/2$. Yet colloquially, we talk about them in exactly the same way.
Aug 24, 2021 at 16:19 comment added ZeroTheHero It seems you’re looking for a math answer to a physics problem…
Aug 24, 2021 at 16:18 comment added ZeroTheHero but why would that contain all representations? There are no particles with spin $73/2$…. Moreover there are plenty of models with symmetries that don’t refer to particles: the harmonic oscillator states with fixed number $N$ of total excitations carry irreps of U(N), and irreps of Sp(2N,R) for variable N.
Aug 24, 2021 at 16:14 comment added DIRAC1930 A state-space that describes every single particle that can exist in the universe.
Aug 24, 2021 at 16:11 comment added ZeroTheHero what is the state space of the Universe?
Aug 24, 2021 at 15:32 comment added DIRAC1930 But doesn't the state space of the universe carry all the irreducible representations? When we focus on the $s=1/2$ sector, i.e. the state space of the Pauli Hamiltonian, it only carries an irrep of the $s=1/2$ $SU(2)$ representation.
Aug 24, 2021 at 15:29 comment added ZeroTheHero @DIRAC1930 We must be talking at cross purposes. Why do you insist in 2.? Of course not. The Hilbert space need not contain all the representations. The Hilbert space for a single spin-1/2 particle is 2-dimensional, not infinite-dimensional. The Hilbert space for a 1-D harmonic oscillator contains a single $sp(2,\mathbb{R})$ representations, not all of them...
Aug 24, 2021 at 15:21 comment added DIRAC1930 Thanks for this. I've updated my question (see Edit). Could you clear up my confusions in the edit if possible?
Aug 24, 2021 at 14:54 comment added ZeroTheHero see physics.stackexchange.com/a/594553/36194 and associated reference: Gatland, I.R., 2006. Integer versus half-integer angular momentum. American journal of physics, 74(3), pp.191-192.
Aug 24, 2021 at 14:22 comment added DIRAC1930 Why isn't spin represented on $L^2$ functions like $SO(3)$ is?
Aug 24, 2021 at 3:25 history edited ZeroTheHero CC BY-SA 4.0
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Aug 24, 2021 at 3:09 comment added ZeroTheHero Yes but (2) must hold, and it’s nontrivial to find $T_{ij}(g)$ that will then make (1) and (2) hold.
Aug 24, 2021 at 3:08 history edited ZeroTheHero CC BY-SA 4.0
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Aug 24, 2021 at 1:33 comment added DIRAC1930 But the equation $T^\lambda(g_1) T^\lambda(g_2) | \psi_k \rangle = T^\lambda(g) | \psi_k \rangle$ is true for any vector $| \psi_k \rangle$ with the same dimension as $T^\lambda(g_i)$.
Aug 23, 2021 at 23:19 history answered ZeroTheHero CC BY-SA 4.0