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Qmechanic
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ohneVal
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I know that if gravity is the only thing that does work on a "particle"particle, theits change of kinetic energy of that "particle" energy will be equal to the work done by gravity(∆K = -∆Ugrav). I know that "∆K = -∆Ugrav" is true for a "particle". But $$\Delta K = -\Delta U_{\rm grav}. \tag{1}\label{energyCons}$$ But how is that true for a "whole object"an object consisting of a large number of particles, as here? There gravity is not the only thing that does work on a single particle of thatthe object, other particles do work on that particle as well. So how is "∆K = -∆Ugrav"Eq. \eqref{energyCons} true for a "whole object", when only gravity does work only? Thank you for your time...

I know that if gravity is the only thing that does work on a "particle", the change of kinetic energy of that "particle" will be equal to the work done by gravity(∆K = -∆Ugrav). I know that "∆K = -∆Ugrav" is true for a "particle". But how is that true for a "whole object" consisting of a large number of particles, as here gravity is not the only thing that does work on a single particle of that object, other particles do work on that particle as well. So how is "∆K = -∆Ugrav" true for a "whole object", when gravity does work only? Thank you for your time...

I know that if gravity is the only thing that does work on a particle, its change of kinetic energy will be equal to the work done by gravity $$\Delta K = -\Delta U_{\rm grav}. \tag{1}\label{energyCons}$$ But how is that true for an object consisting of a large number of particles? There gravity is not the only thing that does work on a single particle of the object, other particles do work on that particle as well. So how is Eq. \eqref{energyCons} true for a "whole object", when only gravity does work?

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I know that if gravity is the only thing that does work on a "particle", the change of kinetic energy of that "particle" will be equal to the work done by gravity(∆K = -∆Ugrav). I know that "∆K = -∆Ugrav" is true for a "particle". But how is that true for a "whole object" consisting of a large number of particles, as here gravity is not the only thing that does work on a single particle of that object, other particles doesdo work on that particle as well. So how is "∆K = -∆Ugrav" true for a "whole object", when gravity does work only? Thank you for your time...

I know that if gravity is the only thing that does work on a "particle", the change of kinetic energy of that "particle" will be equal to the work done by gravity(∆K = -∆Ugrav). I know that "∆K = -∆Ugrav" is true for a "particle". But how is that true for a "whole object" consisting of a large number of particles, as here gravity is not the only thing that does work on a single particle of that object, other particles does work on that particle as well. So how is "∆K = -∆Ugrav" true for a "whole object", when gravity does work only? Thank you for your time...

I know that if gravity is the only thing that does work on a "particle", the change of kinetic energy of that "particle" will be equal to the work done by gravity(∆K = -∆Ugrav). I know that "∆K = -∆Ugrav" is true for a "particle". But how is that true for a "whole object" consisting of a large number of particles, as here gravity is not the only thing that does work on a single particle of that object, other particles do work on that particle as well. So how is "∆K = -∆Ugrav" true for a "whole object", when gravity does work only? Thank you for your time...

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