I would "simply" like to know the full mathematical explanation of:
- Why do these topological defects occur in the first place?
And more importantly,
- Why must these defects/particles carry a magnetic charge?
If possible, please keep the level at undergraduate.
From my understanding, the original argument was made by 't Hooft (and Polyakov?) in 1974 (Magnetic monopoles in unified gauge theoriesMagnetic monopoles in unified gauge theories), but it's locked behind a paywall.