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SuperCiocia
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I would "simply" like to know the full mathematical explanation of:

  1. Why do these topological defects occur in the first place?

And more importantly,

  1. Why must these defects/particles carry a magnetic charge?

If possible, please keep the level at undergraduate.

From my understanding, the original argument was made by 't Hooft (and Polyakov?) in 1974 (Magnetic monopoles in unified gauge theoriesMagnetic monopoles in unified gauge theories), but it's locked behind a paywall.

I would "simply" like to know the full mathematical explanation of:

  1. Why do these topological defects occur in the first place?

And more importantly,

  1. Why must these defects/particles carry a magnetic charge?

If possible, please keep the level at undergraduate.

From my understanding, the original argument was made by 't Hooft (and Polyakov?) in 1974 (Magnetic monopoles in unified gauge theories), but it's locked behind a paywall.

I would "simply" like to know the full mathematical explanation of:

  1. Why do these topological defects occur in the first place?

And more importantly,

  1. Why must these defects/particles carry a magnetic charge?

If possible, please keep the level at undergraduate.

From my understanding, the original argument was made by 't Hooft in 1974 (Magnetic monopoles in unified gauge theories), but it's locked behind a paywall.

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SuperCiocia
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Tweeted twitter.com/StackPhysics/status/1420670451752345602
Res. recom. can usually not be mixed with an actual physics q; edited tags
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Qmechanic
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I would "simply" like to know the full mathematical explanation of:

  1. Why do these topological defects occur in the first place?

And more importantly,

  1. Why must these defects/particles carry a magnetic charge?

I've been trying to find any useful resources on this, but everything that I've found has either been heavily simplified or locked behind a paywall.

If possible, please keep the level at undergraduate.

If you know of any resources that include answers to these questions, feel free to leave them below. From my understanding, the original argument was made by 't Hooft (and Polyakov?) in 1974 (Magnetic monopoles in unified gauge theories), but it's locked behind a paywall.

Hopefully, this isn't considered a dupe (sorry if it is, this is my first time posting) and thank you in advance for any answers!

I would "simply" like to know the full mathematical explanation of:

  1. Why do these topological defects occur in the first place?

And more importantly,

  1. Why must these defects/particles carry a magnetic charge?

I've been trying to find any useful resources on this, but everything that I've found has either been heavily simplified or locked behind a paywall.

If possible, please keep the level at undergraduate.

If you know of any resources that include answers to these questions, feel free to leave them below. From my understanding, the original argument was made by 't Hooft (and Polyakov?) in 1974 (Magnetic monopoles in unified gauge theories), but it's locked behind a paywall.

Hopefully, this isn't considered a dupe (sorry if it is, this is my first time posting) and thank you in advance for any answers!

I would "simply" like to know the full mathematical explanation of:

  1. Why do these topological defects occur in the first place?

And more importantly,

  1. Why must these defects/particles carry a magnetic charge?

If possible, please keep the level at undergraduate.

From my understanding, the original argument was made by 't Hooft (and Polyakov?) in 1974 (Magnetic monopoles in unified gauge theories), but it's locked behind a paywall.

deleted 1 character in body; edited tags
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Vincent Thacker
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