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S Oct 26 at 13:39 history suggested Chandra Prakash CC BY-SA 4.0
added equation for clarification
Oct 26 at 8:56 review Suggested edits
S Oct 26 at 13:39
Jul 24, 2021 at 7:16 history bounty ended SRS
Jul 17, 2021 at 23:21 comment added Lucas Baldo @Andrea Thanks :)
Jul 17, 2021 at 23:20 comment added Lucas Baldo @Andrea In other words, if you are just making a reference frame change, then $A_{F'} = x -100$ and $\vert x \rangle_{F'} = \vert x+100\rangle_{F} $ in that case, such that $\langle A \rangle_{F'} = x = \langle A \rangle_F$.
Jul 17, 2021 at 23:20 comment added Andrea Right on. Great answer
Jul 17, 2021 at 23:16 comment added Lucas Baldo The representation $A = x$ is tied to a reference frame (that of the measurement apparatus, for example). Unless you were to move the measurement apparatus with yourself when going from frame $F$ to frame $F'$, then you would move away from both the measurement apparatus and the particle, such that the expected value of the measurement stays the same. You could consider moving the measurement apparatus with yourself when making the reference frame change, but then you would be making a physical transformation on the system, which fits into the second category explained in my answer.
Jul 17, 2021 at 22:04 comment added Andrea But way, if the origin of F is 100m away from the origin of F’, and $A=x$, wouldn’t you want $\langle A \rangle_F \neq \langle A \rangle_{F’}$?
Jul 17, 2021 at 2:04 history answered Lucas Baldo CC BY-SA 4.0