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May 31, 2022 at 7:39 history reopened jng224
John Rennie special-relativity
May 31, 2022 at 7:38 review Reopen votes
May 31, 2022 at 7:39
May 31, 2022 at 1:05 history closed WillO
Dale special-relativity
Duplicate of Can One-Way Speed of Light be Instantaneous?
May 27, 2022 at 5:16 review Close votes
May 28, 2022 at 19:39
Jan 29, 2022 at 23:42 vote accept fishinear
Jan 29, 2022 at 22:26 comment added fishinear @WillO See the answer I just added a couple of hours ago. It's not really the usual arguments.
Jan 29, 2022 at 20:20 review Close votes
Jan 31, 2022 at 16:23
Jan 29, 2022 at 19:57 comment added WillO Have you taken the trouble to work through the usual arguments for why it is impossible to measure the one-way speed of light, apply them to your specific proposal, and determine the exact step at which something seems to go wrong?
Jan 29, 2022 at 18:01 history edited Qmechanic
edited tags; edited tags
Jan 29, 2022 at 17:18 answer added fishinear timeline score: 4
Jan 19, 2022 at 11:41 comment added fishinear @GumbyTheGreen Correct. The question is not whether the speed of light measured from stellar aberration is equal to c. That has been verified many times over. The question is whether we measure the real one-way-speed of light in stellar aberration, or whether the measured result c is a consequence of us defining the one-way speed to be c during the derivation of Relativity. The latter is true for many other one-way speed of light measurements.
Jan 19, 2022 at 3:10 comment added Gumby The Green But if it's true that the speed of light is always c "for the purpose of aberration" like you say, that effectively means that the experiment you proposed has been done and has confirmed the isotropy of the one-way speed (at least within a certain degree of precision), correct?
Jan 19, 2022 at 3:09 comment added Gumby The Green I thought to ask because I saw a related question on there and a respected user commented on it that "this question has been historically important in astronomy, going back to the determination of the speed of light by Ole Rømer in 1676, using the eclipse data of the Jovian moon Io. So I feel that this question is appropriate on this site." And that question didn't even mention stellar aberration.
Jan 18, 2022 at 13:58 comment added fishinear "Have you asked this question or one like it in the astronomy SE?" - no I have not. It would not make a difference for astronomy either way, as we know that the speed of light measures as c, also for the purpose of aberration. But I was just curious, because people seem so convinced that the one-way-speed is theoretically unmeasurable.
Jan 18, 2022 at 4:18 comment added Gumby The Green Interesting idea. I don't see an issue with it in theory but I'm no expert on stellar aberration. And in practice, I wonder whether it would be accurate enough to confirm isotropy in the speed of light (although it might find a large enough anisotropy), especially since annual aberration is only one of several types that have to be considered. Have you asked this question or one like it in the astronomy SE?
Jul 15, 2021 at 17:32 comment added user307025 Every attempt is futile...I have tried it with looking to the sky. You would think that if the light had an infinite speed in one direction you would see different things in two directions. But no, you always end up with two ways.
Jul 15, 2021 at 17:26 history asked fishinear CC BY-SA 4.0