According to fictitious force wiki,

"Fictitious forces arise in classical mechanics and special relativity in all non-inertial frames. Inertial frames are privileged over non-inertial frames because they do not have physics whose causes are outside of the system, while non-inertial frames do. Fictitious forces, or physics whose cause is outside of the system, are no longer necessary in general relativity since these physics are explained with the geodesics of spacetime."

However, @VincentThacker disagreed with this in a comment to an answer. Upon being asked by me if fictitious forces are necessary in general relativity, his statement of two comments (collated) was as follows:

"Yes, because proper acceleration cannot be set to zero by a coordinate transformation. In GR, gravity is a result of curved spacetime and geodesics, so it is not a source of proper acceleration. However, if an observer has non-zero proper acceleration, objects nearby will appear to have a fictitious (coordinate) acceleration. The easiest example is the surface of the Earth. The surface of the Earth is accelerating radially outwards with proper acceleration g, so we see freely-falling objects "accelerate" at −g. See my answer here."

So, are fictitious forces necessary for correct calculations in general relativity or not?

Disclaimer: I don't understand general relativity at all. I only understand special relativity.