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S May 23 at 0:29 history suggested Prav001 CC BY-SA 4.0
Corrected spelling
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S May 23 at 0:29
Jun 22, 2021 at 4:26 vote accept Ariel Yael
Jun 21, 2021 at 21:31 comment added FGSUZ It is the definition of solid angle. It's a generalization of $\theta=s/r$, just $\Omega=A/r^2$. You're not measuring areas, you want another thing, which is related to them. As for the second question, you can compute the first integral directly, without reducing it to the sphere, but it is harder...
Jun 21, 2021 at 15:20 comment added Ariel Yael Hi! Why do we divide by $r^2$? Just in order to keep the solid angle unit-less or is there another reason? Also, if the proof doesn't use solid angles, how is the relation \begin{equation}\frac{\Delta A \textrm{cos}\theta}{\Delta a}=\left(\frac{R}{r}\right)^2.\end{equation} Recieved?
Jun 20, 2021 at 20:41 history answered FGSUZ CC BY-SA 4.0