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Oct 20, 2023 at 11:42 comment added Dale @Britzel said “time-dilation is always relating times measured in two systems”. More correctly stated: time dilation is always relating a proper time to a coordinate time. $d\tau/dt=1/\gamma$. So in this question there is one clock’s proper time that is compared to coordinate time in an inertial frame where it is moving at constant speed but there is no potential, and coordinate time in a non-inertial frame where it is at rest but there is a potential. In neither frame is there both motion and a potential. GR is not needed here
Oct 20, 2023 at 9:26 comment added Britzel I do find that very confusing, still, but I think it is due to that these explanations are all using special relativity in combination with accelerated frames, whereas the full theory is in fact general relativity, in which masses create curvature and hence a gravitational field, but accelerations do not. (2/2)
Oct 20, 2023 at 9:25 comment added Britzel I hear what you are saying, but still find it confusing. A time-dilation is always relating times measured in two systems, not just one. Otherwise what would it be dilated to. So for example, a clock in the centrifuge would according to your explanation "feel" the gravitational effect. But if I want to know the dilation w.r.t. the clock at rest in the lab, then from the point of view from the centrifuge, this lab clock would be moving with a certain speed, and I again have a special relativistic effect. So again: why not both effects? (1/2)
Jun 1, 2021 at 19:23 history answered Dale CC BY-SA 4.0