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Mar 12, 2021 at 13:31 comment added Andrew @user21820 I added a footnote.
Mar 12, 2021 at 13:31 history edited Andrew CC BY-SA 4.0
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Mar 12, 2021 at 9:09 comment added user21820 Why do you call it "probability amplitude distribution"? It's not a distribution...
Mar 11, 2021 at 19:40 comment added Andrew @user713320 In fact the phases are physically observable! Now, the overall phase (1 number) is not observable. But the spatially dependent part of the phase is observable. If you transform the wavefuncton from the position basis to the momentum basis, you will find that the probability distribution for momentum depends on the phase of the wavefunction in the position basis. You may find this question relevant: physics.stackexchange.com/questions/80434/…
Mar 11, 2021 at 19:38 vote accept user713320
Mar 11, 2021 at 19:34 comment added user713320 Thank you for your answer. It made the concept clearer to me. Since the phases are not physically observable, how do we know the initial probability amplitude distribution? Perhaps, we start with an observation which imples that the wavefunction collapses to an eigenstate of that observable. Then we use that eigenstate as the initial condition for the Schrodinger equation?
Mar 11, 2021 at 19:18 history edited Andrew CC BY-SA 4.0
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Mar 11, 2021 at 19:12 history answered Andrew CC BY-SA 4.0