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S Feb 12, 2021 at 21:06 history bounty ended CommunityBot
S Feb 12, 2021 at 21:06 history notice removed CommunityBot
Feb 6, 2021 at 17:30 answer added Arnold Neumaier timeline score: 2
S Feb 4, 2021 at 19:28 history bounty started MathMath
S Feb 4, 2021 at 19:28 history notice added MathMath Draw attention
Feb 3, 2021 at 12:19 comment added Cosmas Zachos On this SE, of course...
Feb 2, 2021 at 23:09 comment added MathMath Precisely. But my point is: I can simply define the Hamiltonian in infinite-dimensional space by (6), mimicking the finite-dimensional case or I could define Legendre transforms in infinite-dimensional spaces and show that the Hamiltonian, defined as this Legendre transform, becomes (6). Is the second approach doable?
Feb 2, 2021 at 21:53 comment added Cosmas Zachos One generalizes the finite variables' expression to one with an infinity of variables, mutatis mutandis.
Feb 2, 2021 at 21:50 comment added MathMath I think this point is. But the first question is still bothering me.
Feb 2, 2021 at 21:45 comment added Cosmas Zachos OK, is all clear now?
Feb 2, 2021 at 21:43 comment added MathMath @CosmasZachos I understand it as a functional derivative, in fact. But there seems to be some sort of misunderstandings between the treatment of functional derivatives as it is used by physicists and mathematicians. As it is the case in the linked post, physicists use functional derivatives as directional derivatives in the direction of delta distributions, while mathematicians define it as Gatêaux derivatives. It seems that what physicists do is to find the integral kernel of the functional, while mathematicians use auxiliary theorems to prove this kernel satisfies the wanted equations.
Feb 2, 2021 at 21:09 comment added Cosmas Zachos Linked.
Feb 2, 2021 at 21:03 comment added Cosmas Zachos "What is the meaning of the derivative in the right hand side of (4)?" You do understand it as a functional derivative, so pretty much (2), upon the possibly confusing notational switch ${\mathbf x}\mapsto \phi ({\mathbf x}), ~~{\mathbf p}\mapsto \pi ({\mathbf x})$, no?
Feb 2, 2021 at 12:00 history tweeted twitter.com/StackPhysics/status/1356573105393655814
Feb 2, 2021 at 2:59 history edited MathMath CC BY-SA 4.0
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Feb 2, 2021 at 1:20 comment added MathMath Also, in fact Marsden et. al. have a beautiful set of books on the topic. Much of the material, however, is discussed using manifolds and tangent bundles, which I'm not familiar yet. So I'm looking for a more 'functional analysis' approach, if I may say so.
Feb 2, 2021 at 1:18 comment added MathMath @Qmechanic thanks for the comments. About eq. (2), you mean that this is not one of Hamilton's equations because it is usually stated as the definition of ${\bf{p}}$, right? This is what I meant, but it sounds wrong in my post. You are right. About the post linked: this is exactly what I'm looking for but for a field theory instead of point mechanics!
Feb 2, 2021 at 1:16 comment added MathMath @DanielC yes, Arnold do not discuss it sadly. I followed Arnold only in the section about Legendre transforms for finitely many variables.
Feb 2, 2021 at 1:14 comment added DanielC Off the top of my head, I do not recall Arnold discussing classical field theory, but Abraham, Marsden, and Ratiu do. And Giaccheta and Sardanshvili wrote two monographs on mathematical field theory. One of these three references should a rigorous definition of a Legendre transformation of the "configurations space".
Feb 2, 2021 at 1:05 comment added Qmechanic Related question in point mechanics: physics.stackexchange.com/q/105912/2451
Feb 2, 2021 at 1:04 history edited Qmechanic
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Feb 2, 2021 at 0:55 comment added Qmechanic Comment to the post (v2): Eq. (2) is not one of the Hamilton's equations per se.
Feb 2, 2021 at 0:40 history asked MathMath CC BY-SA 4.0