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plasmaQ
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Does ∇⋅τ = μΔv in the Cauchy Momentum Equation?

I find two versions of the Cauchy momentum equation (1, 2): $$ \rho \frac{D\vec{v}}{Dt}=\rho\vec{g} - \nabla{p} + \mu\nabla^2\vec{v} $$ $$ \rho \frac{D\vec{v}}{Dt}=\rho\vec{g} - \nabla{p} + \nabla \cdot \bf\tau $$ andwhere $\tau$ is the stress tensor and $\vec{v}$ is the fluid velocity.

I'm tempted to conclude that $\mu\nabla^2\vec{v} = \nabla \cdot \bf\tau$

 . However, when I expand and compare terms on both sides of the equation they look widely different. Does this equality actually hold? What should the expanded terms look like?

Does this equality actually hold? If so, what is the physical relationship?

Does ∇⋅τ = μΔv?

I find two versions of the Cauchy momentum equation (1, 2): $$ \rho \frac{D\vec{v}}{Dt}=\rho\vec{g} - \nabla{p} + \mu\nabla^2\vec{v} $$ $$ \rho \frac{D\vec{v}}{Dt}=\rho\vec{g} - \nabla{p} + \nabla \cdot \bf\tau $$ and I'm tempted to conclude that $\mu\nabla^2\vec{v} = \nabla \cdot \bf\tau$

  However, when I expand and compare terms on both sides of the equation they look widely different. Does this equality actually hold? What should the expanded terms look like?

Does ∇⋅τ = μΔv in the Cauchy Momentum Equation?

I find two versions of the Cauchy momentum equation (1, 2): $$ \rho \frac{D\vec{v}}{Dt}=\rho\vec{g} - \nabla{p} + \mu\nabla^2\vec{v} $$ $$ \rho \frac{D\vec{v}}{Dt}=\rho\vec{g} - \nabla{p} + \nabla \cdot \bf\tau $$ where $\tau$ is the stress tensor and $\vec{v}$ is the fluid velocity.

I'm tempted to conclude that $\mu\nabla^2\vec{v} = \nabla \cdot \bf\tau$. However, when I expand and compare terms on both sides of the equation they look widely different.

Does this equality actually hold? If so, what is the physical relationship?

Source Link
plasmaQ
  • 188
  • 6

Does ∇⋅τ = μΔv?

I find two versions of the Cauchy momentum equation (1, 2): $$ \rho \frac{D\vec{v}}{Dt}=\rho\vec{g} - \nabla{p} + \mu\nabla^2\vec{v} $$ $$ \rho \frac{D\vec{v}}{Dt}=\rho\vec{g} - \nabla{p} + \nabla \cdot \bf\tau $$ and I'm tempted to conclude that $\mu\nabla^2\vec{v} = \nabla \cdot \bf\tau$

However, when I expand and compare terms on both sides of the equation they look widely different. Does this equality actually hold? What should the expanded terms look like?