Timeline for Why does $[\hat{n},\hat{\phi}] = i$ imply $e^{i \hat{\phi}} |n\rangle = |n+1\rangle$?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
7 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Nov 28, 2020 at 12:21 | vote | accept | pcalc | ||
| Nov 28, 2020 at 11:08 | history | edited | Qmechanic♦ | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
deleted 19 characters in body; edited tags; edited title
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| Nov 28, 2020 at 11:04 | answer | added | Himanshu | timeline score: 1 | |
| Nov 28, 2020 at 10:54 | answer | added | MBolin | timeline score: 6 | |
| Nov 28, 2020 at 10:44 | comment | added | pcalc | Yes, that's the reason for ' ' at 'variable'. I've often read in connection with this statement that they are called conjugate variables, so wanted to use this term to draw a link for those who are familiar with this topi. Furthermore, if they were scalars, the commutator would be 0. | |
| Nov 28, 2020 at 10:39 | comment | added | Himanshu | Does variable mean by the operator in your case? | |
| Nov 28, 2020 at 10:33 | history | asked | pcalc | CC BY-SA 4.0 |