I'm not sure I fully understand your question, but the following may be useful.

In NMR experiments, the $B_{1}$ field needs to actually be at the radio frequency of $\omega_{0}$. This frequency $\omega_{0}$ is determined by the static $B_{0}$ field, in particular $\omega_{0}=\gamma B_{0}$. Once you have the $B_{1}$ field operating at the frequency $\omega_{0}$, you are able to "tip" the magnetization since you are in the resonance condition. The tipping rate will be proportional to the magnitude of $B_{1}$ and the time period $\tau$, but not the frequency of $B_{1}$.

I hope this helps.

I'm not sure I fully understand your question, but the following may be useful.

In NMR experiments, the $B_{1}$ field needs to actually be at the radio frequency of $\omega_{0}$. This frequency $\omega_{0}$ is determined by the static $B_{0}$ field, in particular $\omega_{0}=\gamma B_{0}$. Once you have the $B_{1}$ field operating at the frequency $\omega_{0}$, you are able to "tip" the magnetization since you are in the resonance condition. The tipping rate will be proportional to the magnitude of $B_{1}$ but not the frequency of $B_{1}$. The tip angle itself is then proportional to the product of the magnitude of $B_{1}$ and the time $\tau$.

I hope this helps.