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Nov 13, 2020 at 13:15 comment added Ali So my reasoning is the following. A light beam travels a distance x in one frame, this is an event that occurs in space-time. The equation in one frame is x-ct=0. In the other frame x'-ct'=0. The only way the same event can satisfy these two equation is when (x-ct)=k(x'-ct'). This is because at t=t'=0, and x=x'=0 (when the light beam is emitted) is also an event that has to satisfy the relationship. So the disappearance of the x-ct coincides with the disappearance of x'-ct'. The two systems are coupled.
Nov 13, 2020 at 12:57 comment added A.G I will check up on the other methods. But even though it might be confusing, could you attempt to show me the reasoning behind that step?
Nov 13, 2020 at 12:54 comment added A.G Yes ,that link was the one I was referring to.thanks a lot!
Nov 13, 2020 at 10:26 comment added Ali I recall in Einsteins original 1905 paper on special relativity, he derived things a bit differently. To be honest, his derivations were a bit confusing and they require a lot of thinking to understand. There are much more easier methods that you can use to build the Lorentz Transformations. (e.g. Griffiths Intro to Electrodynamics has a good derivation of the transformations).
Nov 13, 2020 at 10:21 comment added Ali I did some research and I found this. Is this what you are refering to?en.wikipedia.org/wiki/…
Nov 13, 2020 at 10:13 comment added Ali If you could please refer me to the paper, I may be able to assist you further.
Nov 13, 2020 at 10:09 comment added A.G Yes but how do prove it differs by a multiple of a constant and not a function?
Nov 13, 2020 at 8:23 history answered Ali CC BY-SA 4.0