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Nov 7, 2020 at 7:14 history edited Qmechanic
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Nov 7, 2020 at 6:34 review Close votes
Nov 11, 2020 at 3:05
Nov 7, 2020 at 6:23 history edited G. Smith CC BY-SA 4.0
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Nov 7, 2020 at 6:22 vote accept CommunityBot
Nov 7, 2020 at 6:15 answer added joseph h timeline score: 0
Nov 7, 2020 at 6:15 comment added user276724 i will try it, it i a homeowork question but i cant get it. any help appreciated.
Nov 7, 2020 at 6:13 comment added G. Smith This is a homework-like question, so you should not expect a complete answer that works it all out for you. Put a field, say a scalar $\phi$, after the commutator. Let each partial derivative operate on everything to the right of it.
Nov 7, 2020 at 6:08 comment added user276724 What do you mean?
Nov 7, 2020 at 6:04 comment added G. Smith You’re forgetting the (implied) thing that the covariant derivatives are taking the derivative of. You can’t take the derivative of nothing.
Nov 7, 2020 at 5:54 history asked user276724 CC BY-SA 4.0