Timeline for Torque transmission between inclined surfaces
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
6 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Nov 2, 2020 at 13:38 | history | bounty ended | DonQuiKong | ||
| Nov 2, 2020 at 13:38 | vote | accept | Modulus | ||
| Nov 2, 2020 at 13:36 | comment | added | Modulus | I think I got it now. The parts only jam if |F|<μN and the the split between F and N is only determined by the angle (because M1 = F * r * sin(angle(r,F)) - F * r * sin(angle(r,N))). And μN will always be bigger than F if the angle is chosen such that the bodies jam. | |
| Oct 30, 2020 at 18:34 | comment | added | jalex | @Modulus in the case where the parts an jam without friction you end up with an redundant constraint or as commonly known a statically indeterminate system. You just can't determine the forces unless flexibility is considered. | |
| Oct 30, 2020 at 8:13 | comment | added | Modulus | I understand the argument. But in this case, slip can never occur. M1 may be huge, the bodies will still jam. So shouldn't there be force transmission along this sort of form fit? Or in other words, if F is = μN for a given M1, where does the rest of the force go if I double M1? And further, N is not directed onto the axis of B1, so there would be torque in clockwise direction from N. But friction can transmit torque (see force limiters / friction overload clutches). So why would it not in this case? (I don't know if it does, but I don't understand why it wouldn't). | |
| Oct 29, 2020 at 19:56 | history | answered | jalex | CC BY-SA 4.0 |